Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

Question 2 of 5

A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

Question 3 of 5

A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

Question 4 of 5

A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.

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