ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on Labetalol is to avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that, if abruptly stopped, can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is essential for patients to taper off this medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so the nurse should monitor the client for hyperkalemia, which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 3 of 9
A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is tinnitus. Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, which may manifest as tinnitus. Tinnitus should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further hearing damage.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone can lead to bone loss, so clients should increase their intake of vitamin D and calcium to help maintain bone health.
Question 5 of 9
During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression is an anticipated finding due to the development of respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity can lead to metabolic acidosis, causing the individual to hyperventilate initially to compensate. However, as the condition progresses, respiratory depression can occur, resulting in impaired gas exchange and respiratory acidosis.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.
Question 7 of 9
A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.
Question 8 of 9
A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.
Question 9 of 9
When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.