ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology education, it is crucial for nurses to understand the potential adverse effects of medications to ensure safe administration and patient education. In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Eye damage. Hydroxychloroquine is known to potentially cause retinopathy, a serious eye condition that can lead to vision changes or even permanent vision loss. It is essential for nurses to educate patients about the importance of regular eye exams while taking this medication to monitor for any signs of eye damage. Regarding the incorrect options: A) Nausea is a common side effect of Hydroxychloroquine, but it is not as severe or significant as the potential eye damage associated with this medication. B) Hair loss is not a documented adverse effect of Hydroxychloroquine. D) Drowsiness is not a common side effect of Hydroxychloroquine and is not a major concern compared to the risk of eye damage. By understanding the specific adverse effects of Hydroxychloroquine, nurses can provide comprehensive patient education, monitor for potential complications, and collaborate effectively with healthcare providers to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes in the treatment of Lupus Erythematosus.
Question 2 of 5
A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause insomnia due to its stimulating effects. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning helps minimize this side effect by aligning with the body's natural cortisol production cycle, which is highest in the morning and decreases throughout the day. Option A) Take this medication with food to prevent nausea is incorrect because Prednisone does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Option B) Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness is incorrect because Prednisone is more likely to cause insomnia rather than drowsiness, so taking it at bedtime could exacerbate this side effect. Option D) Avoid sudden changes in position is incorrect because this instruction is more relevant for medications that can cause orthostatic hypotension, not specifically for Prednisone. In an educational context, understanding the timing of medication administration and its relationship to side effects is crucial for nurses to provide effective patient care. By explaining the rationale behind the timing of Prednisone administration, nurses can ensure optimal outcomes for their patients with asthma.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving Enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is option C: administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin that is typically administered subcutaneously, as it is better absorbed and has a more predictable effect when given in this manner. Administering Enoxaparin intramuscularly (option B) can lead to increased risk of bleeding due to inadvertent puncture of blood vessels or injury to underlying structures. Administering it into the deltoid muscle (option D) is also not recommended as this route is typically reserved for vaccines or certain medications with specific requirements for administration. Massaging the injection site after administration (option A) is contraindicated with anticoagulants like Enoxaparin as it can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising at the injection site. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to understand the appropriate routes of administration for medications to ensure their efficacy and safety for the patient. This knowledge helps prevent medication errors and adverse effects, ultimately promoting optimal patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A client has been prescribed Nitroglycerin patches for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology education, it is crucial for nurses to understand the rationale behind specific medication administration instructions. In this case, the correct answer is B) Remove the patch for 12 hours each day. The rationale behind this instruction is that Nitroglycerin patches need to be removed for a 12-hour nitrate-free interval to prevent tolerance from developing. Tolerance can occur when the body adapts to the continuous presence of the medication, reducing its effectiveness over time. By having a nitrate-free interval, the body's sensitivity to the medication is maintained, ensuring its efficacy when needed to relieve angina. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Apply the patch to a different site each time: While it is important to rotate application sites to reduce skin irritation, this is not the most critical instruction for Nitroglycerin patches. C) Apply the patch at the same time every day: While consistency in timing is important for some medications, the key factor for Nitroglycerin patches is the nitrate-free interval. D) Cut the patch in half if your blood pressure is well controlled: Altering the dosage form of a medication without healthcare provider approval can lead to improper dosing and potential adverse effects. By understanding the rationale behind the correct answer and the implications of the incorrect options, nurses can ensure safe and effective medication administration for their patients with angina.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications.