ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent these adverse effects by allowing the body to adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the risk of significant blood pressure drops upon standing up quickly.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding potential adverse effects of medications is crucial for safe patient care. In the case of Lisinopril, a common side effect to monitor for is a dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can lead to the accumulation of bradykinin, causing irritation in the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. This adverse effect is unique to ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril. Regarding the other options: - Weight gain is not a common adverse effect of Lisinopril. In fact, ACE inhibitors are more likely to cause weight loss or have a neutral effect on weight. - Diarrhea is not a typical adverse effect of Lisinopril. Gastrointestinal disturbances are less common with this medication. - Nausea is also not a primary adverse effect of Lisinopril. While some patients may experience gastrointestinal upset, nausea is not a predominant side effect associated with this medication. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding specific adverse effects associated with different drug classes. It emphasizes the need for nurses to be diligent in monitoring for common side effects to ensure timely interventions and optimal patient outcomes. Understanding these nuances in pharmacology is essential for safe medication administration and patient care.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the healthcare professional should clarify the frequency part of the prescription with the provider. The correct answer is D) Frequency. Rationale: - Frequency refers to how often the medication should be taken. In this case, "PRN" (pro re nata) indicates that Ondansetron should be taken as needed for nausea and vomiting. However, it is crucial to establish clear parameters for when and how often the medication can be used to ensure proper management of Hyperemesis Gravidarum. - A) Name: The name refers to the medication prescribed, which in this case is Ondansetron. Since the medication name is clear, there is no need to clarify this with the provider. - B) Dosage: The dosage specified is 4 mg, which is a standard dose for Ondansetron. Unless there are specific concerns about the dosage in the context of pregnancy, there is no immediate need to clarify this with the provider. - C) Route: The route specified is PO (by mouth), which is appropriate for oral medications. Given that the client is prescribed Ondansetron for oral use, there is no need to question the route with the provider. Educational Context: Understanding prescription components is essential for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective medication administration. In this case, clarifying the frequency of a PRN medication helps prevent under or overuse, especially in the context of managing conditions like Hyperemesis Gravidarum during pregnancy. By focusing on the frequency aspect, healthcare providers can optimize patient care and medication outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this pharmacology scenario, the correct answer is B) 2 tablets. Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hours means a total of 4 mg daily. Since each tablet is 1 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets to achieve the prescribed dose. Option A) 1 tablet is incorrect because it would only provide 1 mg, not the required 2 mg. Option C) 3 tablets and Option D) 4 tablets are incorrect as they would exceed the prescribed dose of 2 mg. This question is crucial in pharmacology education as it assesses the healthcare professional's ability to accurately calculate and administer medication dosages. It tests their understanding of dosage strength, frequency, and total daily intake. Such calculations are vital to prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety. Mastering these calculations is essential for healthcare professionals working in clinical settings.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.