Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to dim the lighting in the client's room. Dim lighting can help reduce confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer's disease. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to feelings of isolation and distress. Requesting PRN restraints (Choice B) should be avoided in clients with Alzheimer's as it can increase agitation and pose safety risks. Leaving one side rail up on the client's bed (Choice D) may not directly address the client's confusion and wandering behavior.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

Question 4 of 5

What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

Question 5 of 5

A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

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