ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because enoxaparin should be injected into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect as enoxaparin should be injected subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administering enoxaparin is not recommended.
Question 2 of 9
A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because prednisone is usually prescribed for long-term use. Stopping it abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is typically tapered off gradually to avoid adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take prednisone with a high-protein snack.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.
Question 5 of 9
A client has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because enoxaparin should be injected into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect as enoxaparin should be injected subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administering enoxaparin is not recommended.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.