A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Dry mouth. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms in individuals undergoing opioid detoxification. Dry mouth is a known common side effect of Clonidine due to its action on alpha-2 receptors in the salivary glands, leading to decreased saliva production. Option A) Diarrhea is less likely to be caused by Clonidine as it is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal itself and not a typical side effect of Clonidine. Option C) Insomnia is also less likely as Clonidine is actually known to cause drowsiness and sedation, which can help with sleep disturbances during opioid withdrawal. Option D) Hypertension is a potential adverse effect of abrupt Clonidine withdrawal but not a typical side effect when the medication is used appropriately to aid in opioid withdrawal. Educationally, understanding the common side effects of medications like Clonidine is crucial for nurses to educate patients on what to expect and monitor for during treatment. This knowledge helps ensure patient safety and compliance with the prescribed regimen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking Atorvastatin because it can increase the blood levels of the medication, potentially leading to a higher risk of adverse effects like muscle pain and liver damage. It is important to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of Atorvastatin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of a client receiving IV Dopamine for shock treatment, the correct answer indicating the medication's effectiveness is option C) Increased urine output. Dopamine is a vasopressor medication that works by increasing cardiac output and improving renal perfusion, resulting in increased urine production. This diuretic effect is a key indicator that the medication is improving the client's hemodynamic status and perfusion. Option A) Increased heart rate would not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of Dopamine, as an increased heart rate could be a compensatory response to shock rather than a direct result of the medication. Option B) Decreased blood pressure would actually be an undesirable outcome in a patient receiving Dopamine for shock, as the goal of treatment is to improve perfusion and stabilize blood pressure. Option D) Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of Dopamine's effectiveness in treating shock. Respiratory rate is more closely related to pulmonary function and oxygenation status rather than the hemodynamic effects of Dopamine. Educationally, understanding the expected outcomes and rationale behind medication administration in shock is crucial for nursing practice. It is important to recognize the specific indicators of medication effectiveness to provide safe and effective patient care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should administer IV Hydromorphone slowly over 5 minutes to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects, so it is crucial to administer the medication slowly to monitor the client's response and intervene promptly if needed.