A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) This medication has a low risk for dependency. It is important for the nurse to include this information because Buspirone is a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, and one of its advantages is its low potential for causing dependency or addiction compared to other anti-anxiety medications like benzodiazepines. Option A) Take this medication with food is incorrect because Buspirone can be taken with or without food, so it is not necessary to always take it with food. Option B) Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours is incorrect because Buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full therapeutic effect, so it is important for the client to understand that it may not provide immediate relief of anxiety symptoms. Option C) Take this medication daily for anxiety is incorrect because Buspirone is typically taken on a scheduled basis, not only when experiencing anxiety symptoms. It is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule for optimal effectiveness. Educationally, understanding the properties of different medications used to treat anxiety is crucial for nurses to provide accurate and comprehensive information to clients. By knowing the characteristics of Buspirone, nurses can guide clients in using the medication effectively and help prevent misconceptions or misuse. It also fosters a culture of safe and informed medication management in healthcare settings.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching is option D) "You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week." Rationale: - Correct Answer (D): Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Regular monitoring of white blood cell counts is crucial to detect and prevent this potentially life-threatening side effect. This statement emphasizes the importance of close monitoring to ensure the client's safety. - Incorrect Answer (A): While a high-carbohydrate snack may be recommended to manage potential side effects like weight gain associated with Clozapine, this is not the most critical information to include in the teaching compared to the need for white blood cell monitoring. - Incorrect Answer (B): Hand tremors are not a common side effect of Clozapine, so emphasizing this potential effect may cause unnecessary concern for the client and is not a priority in the teaching. - Incorrect Answer (C): Temporary numbness of the mouth is not a common side effect of Clozapine. Focusing on this potential side effect may distract from the more critical information about monitoring white blood cell counts. Educational Context: Understanding the side effects and monitoring requirements of psychiatric medications like Clozapine is essential for nurses to ensure the safe and effective care of clients with mental health conditions. Emphasizing the importance of specific monitoring protocols, such as regular white blood cell count monitoring in the case of Clozapine, helps prevent serious complications and promotes client well-being. Nurses play a crucial role in educating clients about their medications to empower them to manage their health effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby helping to restore muscle strength. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, not neuromuscular blockade. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, like the one the client received, and is not used to reverse its effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urinary excretion of these electrolytes, including potassium. This mechanism can cause hypokalemia, as potassium is also excreted in the urine alongside sodium and chloride. Option A) Captopril and B) Lisinopril are ACE inhibitors, which do not typically cause hypokalemia. Instead, they may lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which normally promotes potassium excretion. Option D) Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that actually helps retain potassium by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor in the distal tubule, thus reducing potassium excretion. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of different classes of medications is crucial for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy and anticipate potential adverse effects like electrolyte imbalances. This knowledge is essential for safe medication administration and effective patient care.