A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring the client for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial when administering Belimumab due to its known potential for severe infusion reactions and anaphylaxis. The healthcare provider should closely observe the client during the administration to promptly identify and manage any hypersensitivity reactions that may occur. Choice A is incorrect because warming Belimumab is not necessary before administration. Choice B is incorrect as Belimumab should not be administered as an IV bolus over 5 minutes; it should be given as an IV infusion over a longer duration. Choice C is incorrect as Belimumab should not be diluted in a 5% dextrose and water solution.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. To ensure optimal absorption, the client should alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication. This practice helps prevent irritation and promotes consistent drug delivery through both nostrils. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed as a tablet, applied topically, or mixed with juice; it is usually administered intranasally.