A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine is to expect orange discoloration of urine and skin. Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not necessitate discontinuation of the medication. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this expected outcome to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Slow acetylators have reduced hepatic N-acetyltransferase (NAT2) activity, affecting metabolism of drugs like hydralazine, isoniazid, and procainamide. In European Caucasians, prevalence is actually 50-60%, not 15-20%, making that statement inaccurate. Gold treatment side effects like thrombocytopenia or nephrotic syndrome aren't strongly linked to acetylation status, but rather to immune responses, so that's less relevant. Halothane hepatotoxicity relates to immune-mediated reactions or metabolites, not acetylation speed. Hydralazine, metabolized by NAT2, accumulates in slow acetylators, increasing risk of drug-induced lupus with antinuclear antibodies (ANA), a well-documented association. Agranulocytosis with clozapine isn't tied to acetylation but to idiosyncratic reactions. The ANA risk with hydralazine is the most accurate, reflecting its pharmacogenetic implications, critical for personalized dosing and monitoring.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A left ventricular aneurysm post-MI risks thrombus formation due to stasis, necessitating anticoagulation. IV heparin is acute, not outpatient prophylaxis, impractical here. Subcutaneous enoxaparin prevents thromboembolism short-term (e.g., post-surgery), but its duration suits weeks, not months. Oral warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, provides long-term anticoagulation (INR 2-3), ideal for chronic prophylaxis against mural thrombi embolizing to systemic circulation, most suitable three months post-MI. Oral aspirin (antiplatelet) or aspirin plus clopidogrel targets arterial clots, less effective for ventricular stasis-related venous thrombi. Warfarin's sustained effect reduces stroke risk, critical in this structural heart defect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), secreted by the pituitary gland, targets Sertoli cells in the testes to stimulate spermatogenesis, the process of sperm production, making it a key regulator of male fertility. Androgen production, primarily testosterone, is governed by luteinizing hormone (LH), not FSH, though both hormones collaborate in reproductive function. Testosterone synthesis occurs in Leydig cells under LH's influence, not FSH, which focuses on supporting sperm maturation rather than hormone production. Progesterone, while present in trace amounts in males, isn't regulated by FSH, as it's more relevant to female reproductive cycles. The specificity of FSH's role in spermatogenesis distinguishes it from broader hormonal regulation, ensuring students grasp its targeted action in the seminiferous tubules, critical for understanding male reproductive physiology and distinguishing it from LH's testosterone-driven effects.