A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the case of a client with a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia, the nurse should anticipate the prescription of Duloxetine (Option D). Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that is commonly used in the management of fibromyalgia due to its ability to modulate both neurotransmitters. This medication helps alleviate pain, improve mood, and reduce fatigue associated with fibromyalgia. Regarding the other options: - Option A: Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout by reducing inflammation. It is not indicated for fibromyalgia. - Option B: Hydroxychloroquine is commonly used to treat autoimmune conditions like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. It is not a first-line treatment for fibromyalgia. - Option C: Auranofin is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. It is not a typical medication prescribed for fibromyalgia. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the choice of Duloxetine for fibromyalgia not only reinforces pharmacological knowledge but also highlights the importance of selecting medications based on their mechanisms of action and indications. This knowledge is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to clients with fibromyalgia and other similar conditions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct response is C) The medication will relieve your mother's constipation. The rationale behind this is that Methylnaltrexone is a peripherally acting mu-opioid receptor antagonist that is specifically used to treat opioid-induced constipation without affecting the central nervous system's analgesic effects of opioids like Morphine. By blocking the mu-opioid receptors in the gut, Methylnaltrexone helps to alleviate the constipation side effect caused by opioids without interfering with the pain relief provided by Morphine. Option A is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not increase respiration, as it is not centrally acting like traditional opioid antagonists such as Naloxone. Option B is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not prevent dependence on Morphine; its primary purpose is to address constipation. Option D is incorrect because while Methylnaltrexone does work in conjunction with Morphine, it does not directly increase pain relief but rather targets constipation. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to understand the rationale for using adjunct medications like Methylnaltrexone in managing side effects of opioid therapy. This knowledge enables healthcare providers to provide comprehensive care while minimizing adverse effects for patients with conditions like end-stage cancer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of administering Pamidronate for bone pain related to cancer, the correct precaution the nurse should take is option B) Assess the IV site for Thrombophlebitis frequently during administration. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate medication that can cause irritation to the veins and increase the risk of thrombophlebitis when administered intravenously. Option A) is incorrect because Pamidronate is not typically associated with skin redness or irritation at the injection site. Option C) is incorrect as Pamidronate is usually given intravenously, not orally, so the instruction to lie down after oral administration is not relevant. Option D) is incorrect as anaphylaxis is not a common concern with Pamidronate administration. Educationally, understanding the specific side effects and precautions associated with medications like Pamidronate is crucial for nurses to ensure safe and effective administration to their patients. By knowing the potential complications and appropriate monitoring techniques, nurses can provide high-quality care and prevent adverse events during medication administration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin, making them less likely to match the desired peak effect within the specified time frame.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C) Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heartbeat. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors, thus reducing the symptoms of hyperthyroidism like tremors and tachycardia associated with Graves' disease. Option A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland. Option B is incorrect as Propranolol does not affect glucose levels directly. Option D is incorrect because Propranolol does not directly decrease thyroid hormone levels but rather helps in managing the symptoms associated with excess thyroid hormone production. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of medications is crucial for nurses to educate patients effectively about their prescribed treatments. By knowing how Propranolol works in Graves' disease, nurses can empower patients to adhere to their medication regimen and manage their condition effectively.