A client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. Specific to this type of deficit, the nurse would document which of the following information related to the client's behavior?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability. This is because the limbic system is responsible for regulating emotions and behavior. A deficit in this area can lead to flat affect (lack of emotional expression) and emotional lability (rapid changes in emotions). A: Disorientation to person, place, and time is more indicative of a deficit in cognitive function, commonly associated with the temporal lobe rather than the limbic system. C: Difficulty recalling recent events like what was eaten for breakfast is related to memory impairment, typically associated with the hippocampus rather than the limbic system. D: Inability to perform tasks like adding and subtracting or knowing the current president is more related to executive functioning and memory, associated with the frontal lobe rather than the limbic system. In summary, the correct answer is B because it directly relates to the emotional and behavioral aspects affected by deficits in the limbic system, while the other choices are more

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A mole with an asymmetrical shape is concerning for melanoma, a potentially deadly skin cancer. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of melanoma, warranting immediate attention for further evaluation and possible biopsy. B is incorrect as dry skin on the elbows is a common benign condition. C is incorrect as a small, round, and brown lesion is likely a benign mole or freckle. D is incorrect as faint, white striae are typically stretch marks and not urgent. In summary, the asymmetrical shape of a mole is alarming due to its association with melanoma, making it the finding requiring immediate attention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Concentric. During the activity of rising from a chair, the quadriceps contract and shorten to lift the body upward, which is a concentric contraction. This type of contraction generates force while the muscle is shortening. Choice B, Eccentric, involves the muscle lengthening while generating force, which does not occur when rising from a chair. Choice C, Isometric, involves the muscle contracting without changing length, which is not the case during this activity. Choice D, Isokinetic, refers to a type of muscle contraction at a constant speed, which is not specific to the scenario of rising from a chair.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outcomes. The patient's significant improvement in function after physical therapy intervention directly relates to the evaluation of outcomes. Outcomes refer to the results or effects of an intervention on a patient's health status or function. In this scenario, the improvement in function is a measurable outcome of the physical therapy intervention. Prognosis (choice A) relates to predicting the course of a condition, diagnosis (choice C) involves identifying the nature of a patient's condition, and intervention (choice D) refers to the specific treatment provided. Therefore, the patient's improvement in function aligns most closely with the evaluation of outcomes in the patient management model.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotator cuff tear. Limited active range of motion with normal passive range of motion in shoulder abduction suggests a muscle-related issue, such as a rotator cuff tear. In this case, the patient can move the shoulder when someone else assists, indicating intact passive structures and a problem with the muscles. Adhesive capsulitis (choice A) typically presents with limitations in both active and passive range of motion. Glenohumeral arthritis (choice C) usually results in decreased passive range of motion as well. Shoulder impingement (choice D) may lead to pain during certain movements, but it would not explain the specific limitation described in the question.