ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL/hr is below the expected range and indicates potential renal failure, requiring immediate intervention. In postoperative patients, a urine output less than 30 mL/hr suggests inadequate renal perfusion, a concern that needs prompt attention to prevent renal complications. The heart rate of 110/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate issues.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.