ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a new prescription for a combination of oral NRTIs (abacavir, lamivudine, and zidovudine) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The NRTI antiretroviral medications this client is prescribed work by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase, thus preventing HIV replication. By inhibiting this crucial enzyme, the drug interferes with the virus's ability to replicate and spread in the body. Choice A is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells. Choice B is incorrect as NRTIs do not weaken the cell wall of the virus. Choice D is incorrect as NRTIs do not prevent protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
Question 3 of 5
A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Efavirenz, an NNRTI. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Efavirenz at bedtime to prevent drowsiness and manage central nervous system side effects like dizziness and vivid dreams. While it is important to take the medication at the same time daily for consistent blood levels, the emphasis should be on bedtime to minimize the impact of these side effects. Choices B and C suggesting taking the medication with milk or juice are incorrect and not relevant to optimizing Efavirenz therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.