ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) comes to the emergency department with severe back pain. She reports that she first felt pain after manually opening her garage door and that she is taking prednisone daily. When adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy is most likely responsible for the pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Long-term corticosteroid therapy, such as prednisone, is known to cause bone loss and increase the risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids inhibit bone formation and increase bone resorption, leading to decreased bone density and increased fracture risk, which can manifest as severe back pain. Incorrect choices: A: Hypertension - Corticosteroids can cause fluid retention and sodium retention, leading to hypertension, but it is not typically associated with severe back pain. B: Muscle wasting - Corticosteroids can lead to muscle weakness, but severe back pain is not typically related to muscle wasting. D: Truncal obesity - Corticosteroids can cause weight gain, especially in the trunk area, but this is not directly responsible for severe back pain.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This step is crucial for identifying the patient's needs and developing a holistic care plan. Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses typically occurs in the second phase (diagnosis). Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on care priorities happens in the third phase (planning and implementation). Choice D is incorrect as determining outcomes achieved is part of the final phase (evaluation).
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Orthopnea is a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF) due to fluid accumulation in the lungs when lying flat. Step 2: This symptom occurs because when lying down, the fluid redistributes, making it harder to breathe. Step 3: Fever (choice B) is not typically associated with CHF unless there is an underlying infection. Step 4: Weight loss (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like cancer or malnutrition, not CHF. Step 5: Calf pain (choice D) is more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis, not CHF. Summary: Orthopnea is the best assessment finding indicating CHF, while the other choices are more likely related to different health conditions.
Question 4 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Boy, a 65-year old man, has been admitted wth severe flame burns resulting from smoking in bed. The nurse can expect his room environment to include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a semi-private room. For a burn patient like Mr. Boy, a semi-private room is preferred to provide a more controlled environment for infection prevention, wound care, and privacy. Strict isolation (A) is not necessary as his burns are not infectious. Liberal visiting (C) can increase the risk of infection and compromise his recovery. Sharing equipment (D) can lead to cross-contamination and is not recommended for burn patients. In summary, a semi-private room balances infection control and patient comfort for burn patients.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the "Where is the pain located?" question corresponds to the "P" component in the PQRST assessment, which stands for Provocative/Palliative factors. This question helps identify the specific location of the pain and what triggers or alleviates it. The other choices are incorrect because: - B: "What causes the pain?" corresponds to the "Q" component (Quality of pain), focusing on the characteristics of the pain. - C: "Does it come and go?" corresponds to the "R" component (Region/Radiation of pain), focusing on the pattern and radiation of the pain. - D: "What does the pain feel like?" corresponds to the "S" component (Severity of pain), focusing on the intensity of the pain.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff. is a symptom that the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient experiencing acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Halos around lights. This symptom is specific to acute angle-closure glaucoma due to increased intraocular pressure causing corneal edema. Halos around lights are caused by light diffraction through edematous cornea. Flashing lights and lens opacity are not typically associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma. Flashing lights may be seen in retinal detachment, while lens opacity is more commonly seen in cataracts.
Question 8 of 9
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff is a nursing intervention when assessing clients with hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching the client about both non-pharmacologic and pharmacologic methods for managing hypertension is a crucial nursing intervention to empower the client in their self-care and treatment plan. This intervention helps the client understand the importance of lifestyle modifications and medication adherence in controlling blood pressure. A: The nurse taking the temperature in different positions is not directly related to assessing hypertension. C: Taking BP in different positions is important for orthostatic hypotension, not specifically for hypertension. D: Weighing the client each morning is not a direct nursing intervention for assessing hypertension.