ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) comes to the emergency department with severe back pain. She reports that she first felt pain after manually opening her garage door and that she is taking prednisone daily. When adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy is most likely responsible for the pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Long-term corticosteroid therapy, such as prednisone, is known to cause bone loss and increase the risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids inhibit bone formation and increase bone resorption, leading to decreased bone density and increased fracture risk, which can manifest as severe back pain. Incorrect choices: A: Hypertension - Corticosteroids can cause fluid retention and sodium retention, leading to hypertension, but it is not typically associated with severe back pain. B: Muscle wasting - Corticosteroids can lead to muscle weakness, but severe back pain is not typically related to muscle wasting. D: Truncal obesity - Corticosteroids can cause weight gain, especially in the trunk area, but this is not directly responsible for severe back pain.
Question 2 of 9
What are the signs of organ rejection a nurse should closely monitor for when caring for a client after heart transplantation? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a common sign of organ rejection after heart transplantation, indicating possible heart failure. Low white blood cell count (A) is not typically a direct sign of organ rejection. ECG changes (C) may occur but are not specific to organ rejection. Fever (D) is a non-specific symptom and can be caused by various factors. Dyspnea is a key indicator that the transplanted heart is not functioning properly and should be closely monitored.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. is a symptom that the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient experiencing acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Halos around lights. This symptom is specific to acute angle-closure glaucoma due to increased intraocular pressure causing corneal edema. Halos around lights are caused by light diffraction through edematous cornea. Flashing lights and lens opacity are not typically associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma. Flashing lights may be seen in retinal detachment, while lens opacity is more commonly seen in cataracts.
Question 4 of 9
A complete blood count is commonly performed before a client goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A complete blood count (CBC) is used to identify abnormalities in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels are part of a CBC and indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Abnormally low HCT and Hb levels can signify conditions like anemia, which can impact a client's ability to undergo surgery due to potential complications related to oxygen delivery. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Potential hepatic dysfunction is not directly related to a CBC, and BUN/creatinine levels are markers for kidney function, not liver function. B: Low levels of urine constituents are not assessed in a CBC, which focuses on blood components. D: Electrolyte imbalance is not specifically tested in a CBC; it is usually evaluated through separate blood tests. Coagulation factors are not directly measured in a CBC.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the first phase of the nursing process is assessment, where the nurse gathers comprehensive data about the patient's health status. This step is crucial in identifying problems and setting priorities for care. Choice B comes in the second phase (diagnosis), C in the third phase (planning), and D in the last phase (evaluation). Assessing the patient's condition is the foundation for the rest of the nursing process.
Question 6 of 9
Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B: Footboard and splint: 1. Footboard helps prevent foot drop by maintaining proper alignment and preventing pressure ulcers. 2. Splint helps stabilize and support Franco's limbs to prevent contractures and maintain proper positioning. 3. Both items are essential for Franco's safety, comfort, and prevention of complications. 4. Hand bell and extra bed linen (Choice A) are not crucial for Franco's immediate care needs. 5. Sandbag and trochanter rolls (Choice C) are not directly relevant to Franco's specific conditions. 6. Suction machine and gloves (Choice D) are important for airway management but not the priority for bedside equipment in this case.
Question 7 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.
Question 8 of 9
Which type of neuron transmits impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Efferent neurons transmit impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands. This is because efferent neurons are responsible for carrying motor signals away from the central nervous system to control muscle movement and gland secretion. Afferent neurons (choice A) transmit sensory information from the body to the central nervous system. Affective (choice B) is not a term used in neuroscience for describing neuron functions. Effective (choice D) is not a term used in neuroscience and does not describe the specific function of transmitting impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following terms indicates that the patient has a hearing loss caused by aging?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presbycusis. Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss, commonly affecting higher frequencies. As people age, changes in the inner ear structures can lead to hearing loss. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to correct ear deformities, not related to aging. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not specifically related to aging. Tinnitus (D) is the perception of ringing or buzzing in the ears, which can occur at any age and is not exclusive to age-related hearing loss.