ATI RN
Mental Health Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client diagnosed with major depression was prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) and has been taking this medication for 1 week. The client took his last dose of imipramine (Tofranil) at 9:00 PM. The client is scheduled to have blood drawn to monitor the medication level the next morning. The nurse should instruct the client to have his blood drawn as close as possible to which time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) 09:00. When monitoring the medication level of imipramine, it is important to draw blood at the trough level, which is the point when the medication is at its lowest concentration in the bloodstream. Imipramine is typically administered at bedtime due to its sedative effects, so drawing blood in the morning, close to the time of the last dose, ensures an accurate trough level measurement. Option A) 06:00 is too early and may not reflect the trough level accurately as the medication would still be in the process of being metabolized. Option B) 07:00 is also too early and does not allow for sufficient time for the medication to reach its lowest concentration in the blood. Option C) 08:00 is closer to the correct answer but may still not capture the true trough level of the medication as effectively as drawing blood at 09:00. Understanding the timing of blood draws for medication level monitoring is crucial in ensuring accurate results and effective treatment for clients with mental health conditions. Nurses must be knowledgeable about medication administration schedules and monitoring protocols to provide optimal care for their clients.
Question 2 of 5
A sexual history of a female client reveals that the client has a normal sex drive and reports of orgasm through means other than intercourse. The client also has a history of being raped several years ago. The client reports spasms of the perineal and outer vaginal muscles when vaginal intercourse is attempted. The nurse interprets these findings as suggesting which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Vaginismus. Vaginismus is a condition where there is an involuntary spasm of the muscles around the vagina, causing pain and difficulty with penetration. The client's history of rape, along with the reported spasms when attempting vaginal intercourse, align with the symptoms of vaginismus. This condition is often associated with anxiety or fear related to sexual activity, which could be a result of the client's past trauma. Option A) Priapism refers to a prolonged erection in males, which is not relevant to the client's symptoms. Option B) Dyspareunia is pain during sexual intercourse, not the spasms described in the client's case. Option C) Sexual aversion disorder involves a strong aversion or fear of sexual activity, which is not the primary issue for this client. Educationally, understanding conditions like vaginismus is crucial for healthcare providers working with clients who have experienced sexual trauma. It is essential to provide a safe and supportive environment for these clients and to be knowledgeable about how past experiences can impact their current sexual health. By correctly identifying and addressing conditions like vaginismus, nurses can offer appropriate care and referrals for further support.
Question 3 of 5
After teaching a group of nursing students about Alzheimer's disease and appropriate nursing care, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the foundation for providing care to the client and family?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of caring for clients with Alzheimer's disease, establishing a therapeutic relationship is foundational for providing effective care to both the client and their family. This relationship fosters trust, communication, and understanding, which are crucial in managing the complex needs and behaviors associated with Alzheimer's. Through a therapeutic relationship, nurses can better assess and address the client's physical, emotional, and social needs, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Medication therapy (option B) is important in managing symptoms of Alzheimer's but alone does not address the holistic needs of the client and family. Injury prevention (option C) is essential, but it is a component of care rather than the foundation. Functional independence (option D) is a goal of care but relies on the establishment of a therapeutic relationship to support the client in achieving and maintaining independence. By prioritizing a therapeutic relationship, nurses can create a supportive environment that promotes optimal care outcomes for clients with Alzheimer's disease and their families.
Question 4 of 5
A female client is being treated for depression that has occurred secondary to a chronic cardiopulmonary condition. Which antidepressant would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Fluoxetine (Prozac). Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression. It is the preferred choice for patients with comorbid depression and chronic medical conditions due to its safety profile and minimal drug interactions. This makes it a suitable option for a client with a chronic cardiopulmonary condition where drug interactions and side effects need to be carefully considered. Option A) Trazodone is primarily used for insomnia and may not be the best choice for treating depression in this case. Option B) Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) and is often prescribed for depression with atypical features or as an adjunct to other antidepressants. Option D) Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) with more side effects and potential interactions compared to SSRIs like fluoxetine. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind selecting specific antidepressants based on individual patient characteristics is crucial for nursing practice. It highlights the importance of considering comorbidities, safety profiles, drug interactions, and patient response to treatment when making prescribing decisions. This knowledge enhances nursing care by promoting safe and effective medication management tailored to each patient's unique needs.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client with a long arm cast. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for acute compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Edema. Acute compartment syndrome can occur when there is increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and potential tissue damage. When a client has a long arm cast, the nurse should monitor for signs of acute compartment syndrome, such as edema (swelling), which can indicate increased pressure within the casted area. Shortness of breath (option A) is not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome but may indicate respiratory issues. Petechiae (option B) are tiny, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin and are not specific to acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (option C) is more indicative of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to understand the signs and symptoms of acute compartment syndrome to provide timely and appropriate interventions to prevent complications. Monitoring for edema in casted limbs is essential to prevent further damage and ensure optimal client outcomes.