A client diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks is scheduled for ANC care every

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Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks is scheduled for ANC care every

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Four weekly up to 28 weeks. Gestational diabetes requires close monitoring of blood sugar levels and fetal well-being. ANC care every four weeks up to 28 weeks ensures proper management and early detection of any complications. Weekly or two weekly visits (options A and B) may be too frequent and unnecessary at this stage unless there are specific concerns. Three weekly visits (option D) may not provide adequate monitoring intervals. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for the optimal management of gestational diabetes at this stage of pregnancy.

Question 2 of 9

Why is it important to monitor blood pressure regularly in pregnant women?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: It is important to monitor blood pressure in pregnant women to detect preeclampsia, a serious condition that can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, and early detection is crucial for timely intervention. Regular monitoring allows healthcare providers to identify and manage preeclampsia promptly, reducing the risk of severe complications such as eclampsia and organ damage. Anemia, preterm labor, and gestational diabetes are important aspects of prenatal care but are not directly related to the need for regular blood pressure monitoring in pregnant women.

Question 3 of 9

In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D (Atelectasis) is correct: 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired lung function, increasing the risk of atelectasis. 2. Anemia can cause decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, contributing to atelectasis. 3. Volume contraction can lead to reduced lung expansion, further predisposing to atelectasis. Summary: - Choice A (Prolonged intubation): Intubation duration is more related to respiratory complications, not directly linked to the mentioned risk factors. - Choice B (Thromboembolism): Risk factors like immobility and hypercoagulability are more relevant to thromboembolism. - Choice C (Delayed wound healing): More associated with factors like malnutrition and impaired immune function rather than the mentioned risk factors.

Question 4 of 9

The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperextension casting. The AGACNP knows that this treatment is appropriate for a condition that requires immobilization and support while allowing controlled movement. Hyperextension casting provides stability and support while promoting healing. Observation (A) would not provide adequate treatment for a condition requiring immobilization. Jewett brace (C) is typically used for spinal fractures, not for conditions that require hyperextension casting. Surgical intervention (D) would be considered if conservative measures like casting have failed.

Question 5 of 9

The main clinical feature in hyperemesis gravidarum is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following is an indication for forceps delivery?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Occipito posterior position. Forceps delivery may be indicated in this situation to help rotate the baby's head and facilitate delivery. Occipito posterior position can lead to prolonged labor and fetal distress, making forceps delivery necessary for a safe delivery. Incorrect choices: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion is not an indication for forceps delivery as it refers to mismatch between the size of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis. C: Breech presentation typically requires a different approach such as cesarean section rather than forceps delivery. D: Placenta abruption, a medical emergency, would not be managed with forceps delivery but rather require immediate intervention to prevent harm to both the mother and baby.

Question 7 of 9

V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade IIVI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Baseline cardiac catheterization. Given the presence of a new onset grade IIVI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur, a baseline cardiac catheterization is necessary to assess the severity and etiology of the murmur. This procedure will provide crucial information on the structure and function of the heart, helping to determine the appropriate management plan. A: Annual or biannual serial echocardiography is not necessary as the patient is currently asymptomatic and echocardiography has already revealed mild aortic calcification. B: Modification of activity level is not the immediate priority as the patient is very active physically and not reporting any limitations to daily activities. D: Statin therapy is not indicated based solely on the presence of a new murmur without further assessment of cardiac function through cardiac catheterization.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.

Question 9 of 9

The CORRECT statement with regards to face to pubis delivery is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Face to pubis delivery occurs when the fetal face presents towards the mother's pubic bone during birth. Choice C is correct because a 45˚ anterior rotation of the occiput is needed for this positioning. This allows the fetal face to be directed towards the mother's pubis for a successful face to pubis delivery. Choices A and D are incorrect as they mention incorrect angles of rotation. Choice B is incorrect as a persistent occipito posterior position would result in a face to sacrum delivery, not face to pubis.

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