ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs NCLEX Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder: depressive episode intentionally overdoses on sertraline (Zoloft). Family members report that the client has experienced anorexia, insomnia, and recent job loss. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide R/T hopelessness. In this scenario, the client's intentional overdose, along with symptoms of depression, anorexia, insomnia, and recent job loss, indicate a high risk for suicide. The priority nursing diagnosis should address the immediate safety concern of suicide risk. Other choices are incorrect because anxiety is not the primary issue, imbalanced nutrition does not take precedence over suicidal risk, and dysfunctional grieving is not the most critical concern in this situation.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has not come out of her room for breakfast. The nurse finds the patient moving restlessly about her room in a disorganized manner. The patient is talking to herself, and her verbal responses to the nurse are nonsensical and suggest disorientation. The nurse notices that the patient’s skin is hot and dry, and her pupils are somewhat dilated. All these symptoms are significant departures from the patient’s recent presentation. The patient is likely experiencing ________ , and the nurse should ___________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: anticholinergic toxicity. The patient's symptoms (restlessness, disorganized movement, nonsensical speech, disorientation, hot and dry skin, dilated pupils) are indicative of anticholinergic toxicity. Anticholinergic medications can cause these symptoms by blocking the action of acetylcholine in the brain and body. The nurse should check vital signs and prepare to use a cooling blanket to lower the patient's body temperature, as anticholinergic toxicity can lead to hyperthermia. Choice B (relapse of psychosis) is incorrect because the symptoms are not typical of a simple relapse of psychosis. Choice C (neuroleptic malignant syndrome) is incorrect because the symptoms do not match the classic presentation of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which includes fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. Choice D (agranulocytosis) is incorrect because the symptoms are not consistent with agranulocytosis,
Question 3 of 5
Ant has just turned 18, is in his first year at uni, and has been taking advantage of the cheap alcohol available at the uni bar. As a result of this he has missed several classes, the deadlines on 5 assignments, and may fail some of his units. Which of the following DSM-IV diagnoses is most correct for him?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Substance Abuse. Ant's behavior of missing classes, deadlines, and risking academic failure due to alcohol use aligns with the criteria for Substance Abuse in the DSM-IV. This diagnosis indicates a pattern of harmful use despite negative consequences. Substance Dependence (Choice B) would require more severe criteria like tolerance and withdrawal symptoms, which are not evident here. Choice C is incorrect as Substance Dependence is not met. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the seriousness of Ant's behavior and the potential impact on his academic success.
Question 4 of 5
While completing the history portion of an admission assessment of a client with schizophrenia, the nurse notices that the client is continually moving in the chair and frequently stands, then sits back down. The nurse knows that this client most likely is experiencing the side effect of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Akathisia. Akathisia is characterized by restlessness, inability to sit still, and a constant need to move. In this scenario, the client's continual movement and inability to sit still indicate symptoms of akathisia. This side effect is commonly seen with antipsychotic medications. Explanation: 1. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice A) presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, stiffness, and shuffling gait. The client's symptoms do not align with these characteristics. 2. Dystonia (Choice B) is characterized by involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal movements or postures. The client's symptoms do not match the sudden, sustained muscle contractions seen in dystonia. 3. Akinesia (Choice D) refers to a lack of movement or difficulty initiating movement, which is not consistent with the client's behavior of constant movement and inability to sit still.
Question 5 of 5
A patient demonstrates disoriented thinking and irrational ideas. A nurse can anticipate that a PET scan would most likely show dysfunction in the brain’s:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: frontal lobe. Disoriented thinking and irrational ideas are associated with dysfunction in the frontal lobe, responsible for decision-making, problem-solving, and emotional regulation. A PET scan would likely show decreased activity in this region. The parietal lobe (B) is primarily involved in sensory processing, the occipital lobe (C) in visual processing, and the temporal lobe (D) in memory and language functions, not directly linked to disoriented thinking.