ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
.A client complains of urinary discomfort and a burning sensation while urinating. A urethral smear shows evidence of urethritis, and the client is prescribed antibiotics and instructed to drink 2-3 L of water daily. For which of the ff reasons is the client advised to drink the specified amount of water?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Antibiotics are prescribed to treat urethritis, indicating a bacterial infection in the urinary tract. Step 2: Increasing water intake (2-3 L daily) promotes renal blood flow, dilutes urine, and helps flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, aiding in the elimination of infection. Step 3: Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of concentrated urine, reducing the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections. Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly target the bacterial infection causing the urinary discomfort. Drinking water will not specifically help with incontinence, eliminate odors, or provide pain relief.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving antibiotics to treat a gram-negative bacterial infection. Because antibiotics destroy the body’s normal flora, the nurse must monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diarrhea. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of gut bacteria, leading to diarrhea. This occurs due to the overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the intestines. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to prevent dehydration and further complications. Platelet dysfunction (A), stomatitis (B), and oliguria/dysuria (C) are not typically associated with the disruption of normal flora by antibiotics. These symptoms are more likely related to other conditions or side effects of medications, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids that do not contain any solid particles, providing easily digestible nutrients. Jello meets these criteria as it is a clear, gelatin-based dessert that melts into a liquid form at room temperature. Rationale: 1. Jello is a clear liquid that does not contain solid particles, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. 2. Milk (A) and ice cream (D) are not considered clear liquids as they contain fats and proteins, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. 3. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and fibers, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet. Summary: Jello is the correct choice because it meets the criteria of being a clear liquid without solid particles. Milk, orange juice, and ice cream are not appropriate choices for a clear liquid diet due to their composition.
Question 4 of 9
A client with autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet count of 8,000/ul develops epistaxis and melena. Treatment with corticosteroids and immunoglobulins has been unsuccessful, and the physician recommends a splenectomy. The client states, “I don’t need surgery-this will go away on its own”. In considering her response to the client, the nurse must depend on the ethical principle of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. In this scenario, the client is expressing her desire to not undergo surgery, which is her right as an autonomous individual. The nurse must respect her decision even if it goes against medical advice. Beneficence (A) is the ethical principle of doing good for the patient, but in this case, respecting the client's autonomy takes precedence. Advocacy (B) involves supporting the client's best interests, which could align with autonomy in this case. Justice (D) refers to fairness and equal treatment, but it is not directly applicable to the client's decision regarding surgery.
Question 5 of 9
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticipatory grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client's symptoms, such as weight loss, fatigue, and diagnosis of gallbladder cancer, indicate a serious health condition that may lead to emotional distress. Anticipatory grieving involves feelings of loss and sadness related to an anticipated loss, such as the diagnosis of cancer. The client may experience fear, anxiety, and sadness due to the potential impact of the illness on their life. Choice B (Disturbed body image) is incorrect because the client's symptoms are more indicative of a serious health concern rather than body image issues. Choice C (Impaired swallowing) is incorrect as the symptoms described do not suggest difficulty with swallowing. Choice D (Chronic low self-esteem) is also incorrect as the symptoms are more likely related to physical health issues rather than self-esteem concerns.
Question 6 of 9
A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse informs the client that the physician will prescribe diuretic therapy and restrict fluid and sodium intake to treat the disorder. If the client does not comply with the recommended treatment, which complication may arise?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Cerebral edema Rationale: 1. SIADH leads to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. 2. Diuretic therapy aims to increase urine output and correct fluid imbalance. 3. If the client does not comply, excessive water retention can lead to cerebral edema. 4. Cerebral edema is a serious complication that can cause neurological deficits. Summary: - B: Severe hyperkalemia is unlikely as diuretics would help excrete excess potassium. - C: Hypovolemic shock is not expected as fluid restriction may prevent rapid volume loss. - D: Tetany is not a direct consequence of non-compliance with treatment for SIADH.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Sison had an above the knee amputation (AKA). He is taught to use crutches while prosthesis is being adjusted. The nurse instruct the client to support her weight primarily on which areas?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: axilla. When using crutches, weight should primarily be supported on the axilla to prevent nerve and blood vessel damage in the armpit area. Supporting weight on the upper arms (B) can lead to nerve compression and muscle strain. Supporting weight on the elbows (C) can cause nerve damage and discomfort. Supporting weight on the hands (D) can lead to hand and wrist pain and may not provide stable support. Therefore, the axilla is the most appropriate area to support weight while using crutches to ensure safety and comfort for the client.
Question 8 of 9
Which part of the body is supplied by nerves form the thoracic cord?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trunk. The thoracic cord supplies nerves to the trunk region of the body. The thoracic spinal nerves innervate the chest, abdomen, and back. They control sensation and movement in these areas. The head (A) is mainly supplied by cranial nerves, the pelvis (B) is innervated by lumbar and sacral nerves, and the coccyx (D) is supplied by the sacral nerves. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the anatomical distribution of the thoracic spinal nerves.
Question 9 of 9
Which finding will alert the nurse that the goal has been met?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it meets the goal of maintaining a heart rate of 78 beats/min. This specific date ensures the consistency of the heart rate within the desired range. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the goal as they either have a different heart rate or occur on a different date. Therefore, A is the only option that accurately reflects the goal being met on the specified date.