ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client at risk for developing hyperkalemia states, 'I love fruit and usually eat it every day, but now I can't because of my high potassium level.' How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because berries, cherries, apples, and peaches are indeed low in potassium compared to other fruits. This response acknowledges the client's love for fruits while providing suitable alternatives to manage potassium levels. By choosing these low-potassium fruits, the client can continue enjoying fruits without exacerbating hyperkalemia. Incorrect options: A: Potatoes and avocados are high in potassium, so they are not suitable substitutes. B: Cooking fruit does not significantly reduce its potassium content. D: This option lacks guidance and does not offer a solution to the client's concern about high potassium levels.
Question 2 of 9
After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes foods high in potassium. Raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk are good sources of potassium. Sausage might contain some potassium as well. A: This option lacks potassium-rich foods. B: While strawberries have some potassium, the overall meal lacks a sufficient amount. D: While oatmeal and peaches have potassium, coffee can actually inhibit potassium absorption.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.34, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 19 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac rate and rhythm. In an acid-base imbalance, the pH is below the normal range indicating acidosis. The nurse should assess the cardiac rate and rhythm first because acidosis can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system. Acidosis can lead to arrhythmias and decreased cardiac output. Monitoring the cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial to detect any cardiac complications early. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation as they are not directly impacted by acid-base imbalances.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage oral fluid intake. When a client has hypercalcemia (serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL), the priority is to increase fluid intake to promote renal calcium excretion. This helps prevent complications such as renal calculi. The first step is to dilute the serum calcium by increasing fluid intake, which can help lower the serum calcium level. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (B) is not the priority as hypercalcemia affects the kidneys more than the heart. Assessing urinary output (C) is important but encouraging fluid intake is more immediate. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (D) is not the first action as it is a medication used for long-term management of hypercalcemia, not the immediate priority.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory acidosis. A low pH (7.21) indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 (64 mm Hg) indicates respiratory acidosis, as high CO2 levels lead to carbonic acid formation, decreasing pH. The normal HCO3 (24 mm Hg) suggests compensation for the respiratory acidosis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the ABG values provided. Metabolic alkalosis (B) would have a high pH and HCO3, respiratory alkalosis (C) would have a high pH and low PaCO2, and metabolic acidosis (D) would have a low pH and HCO3.
Question 6 of 9
You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. Patient with pancreatitis may have depleted levels of phosphorus due to malnutrition, and rapid initiation of TPN can further decrease phosphorus levels, leading to hypophosphatemia. This can result in respiratory failure, muscle weakness, and arrhythmias. Choice A is incorrect because patients receiving TPN are not specifically at risk for hypercalcemia due to rapid initiation of calories. Choice C is incorrect because rapid fluid infusion can lead to hypernatremia, not related to TPN initiation. Choice D is incorrect because the rationale provided for slow initiation is not related to digestive enzymes but rather to prevent hypophosphatemia in malnourished patients.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clip the hair in the area. Clipping the hair is the most appropriate option as it reduces the risk of infection during IV insertion by minimizing the presence of bacteria that may be trapped in the hair. Shaving (B) can cause micro-abrasions leading to increased infection risk. Leaving the hair intact (A) can also trap bacteria. Using a depilatory (D) can cause skin irritation and should be avoided. In summary, clipping the hair is the best option to maintain a clean and safe environment for IV insertion.
Question 8 of 9
You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patients most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patients magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the followin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: High magnesium levels can lead to hypermagnesemia, which can cause decreased neuromuscular function. Step 2: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of neuromuscular impairment, indicating potential hypermagnesemia. Step 3: Assessing for diminished deep tendon reflexes is crucial to monitor neuromuscular function in patients with high magnesium levels. Summary: A is correct because hypermagnesemia affects neuromuscular function. B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effects of high magnesium levels.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why option A is correct: 1. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion leads to decreased sodium reabsorption and increased water excretion. 2. Decreased aldosterone can result in decreased blood volume and BP, leading to decreased urine output. 3. Monitoring urine output is crucial to assess renal function and fluid balance. 4. A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered inadequate and can indicate renal impairment or dehydration. Summary: Option A is correct as it directly relates to the mechanism of action of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected complications of aldosterone inhibition.