A client at 37 weeks' gestation reports severe itching without a rash. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholestasis of pregnancy. Severe itching without a rash in a pregnant client at 37 weeks' gestation is concerning for cholestasis of pregnancy, a condition characterized by impaired bile flow. This can lead to elevated bile acids, causing itching. Preeclampsia (choice A) presents with hypertension and proteinuria. Gestational diabetes (choice C) manifests with high blood sugar levels. Fungal infection (choice D) typically presents with visible skin changes like a rash, which is absent in this case. In summary, cholestasis of pregnancy is the most likely explanation for severe itching in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression, resulting in a decreased respiratory rate. This is a critical sign of magnesium toxicity and should be addressed promptly. Explanation for other choices: A: Deep tendon reflexes +3 are actually a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate due to its muscle relaxant effects. C: Urine output of 40 mL/hour is within the normal range and does not indicate magnesium toxicity. D: Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is also within the normal range and is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by altering gut flora. Step 2: Failure to use a backup method can lead to unintended pregnancy. Step 3: Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the patient on using a backup method to prevent pregnancy. Summary: Choice A is incorrect as nausea is not the main concern. Choice C is incorrect as not all antibiotics interact with oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as there is a potential interaction between antibiotics and oral contraceptives.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate contraception method for a woman nearing menopause is an IUD with progestin (Choice C). Progestin-containing IUDs are effective, long-lasting, and suitable for women of various ages. As women approach menopause, the hormonal changes make progestin-containing IUD a favorable option as it offers reliable contraception without the need for daily administration. Additionally, progestin can also help alleviate symptoms like heavy periods that women may experience during perimenopause. Choices A and B are not ideal as oral contraceptives with estrogen can increase the risk of blood clots in older women, and contraceptive injections may not be as convenient for someone nearing menopause. Barrier methods like condoms (Choice D) are less effective and may not provide the level of protection needed during this stage of life.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the internal condom is made of nitrile, which is a non-latex material. This makes it suitable for individuals with latex allergies. Choice B is incorrect because both internal and external condoms can be used for repeated acts of intercourse. Choice C is incorrect because internal condoms do not necessarily have a lower failure rate than external condoms. Choice D is incorrect because while condoms can enhance pleasure during intercourse, the primary purpose of the internal condom is for protection rather than pleasure.