A client at 12 weeks' gestation reports nausea and vomiting. What is the best dietary advice?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day. This advice helps manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy by preventing an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Eating small, frequent meals helps stabilize blood sugar levels and provides a steady source of nutrients for the developing fetus. It also reduces the likelihood of triggering nausea by avoiding large meals. Drinking fluids with meals (choice B) may exacerbate symptoms by filling up the stomach too quickly. Eating three large meals a day (choice A) can lead to overeating and may worsen nausea. Avoiding protein-rich foods (choice D) is not recommended as protein is essential for fetal development and overall health during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium sulfate. This medication is commonly prescribed for preterm labor to relax the uterine muscles and prevent contractions. It helps delay labor and reduce the risk of preterm birth. Methyldopa (B) is used for managing hypertension, not preterm labor. Rho(D) immune globulin (C) is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent hemolytic disease in newborns. Oxytocin (D) is used to induce or augment labor, not for suspected preterm labor. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for managing preterm labor.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Variable decelerations on the fetal monitor. This finding suggests umbilical cord prolapse because the cord can become compressed during contractions, leading to variable decelerations. It is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent fetal distress. A: Clear amniotic fluid is a normal finding after rupture of membranes. C: Contractions every 2 minutes may indicate tachysystole, but not specifically cord prolapse. D: Maternal blood pressure is not directly related to cord prolapse.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's comparison of receiving a Depo-Provera injection to a rubella injection is incorrect. Depo-Provera is a hormonal contraceptive injection that does not have the same administration process or purpose as a rubella vaccination. This indicates a lack of understanding about the medication. Choice B is not the correct answer because it shows the client's awareness of the importance of weight management and exercise in conjunction with receiving the injection. Choice C is not the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need for a follow-up appointment in 3 months which is necessary for monitoring and continuation of the contraceptive method. Choice D is not the correct answer because it shows the client's understanding of the potential delay in fertility after discontinuing Depo-Provera, which is an important aspect of the contraceptive method that the client should be aware of.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neck. The patch contraception is most effective when applied to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the body. The neck is a suitable site because it is easily accessible, non-occlusive, and less likely to be affected by clothing friction. Placing the patch on the neck also helps avoid skin irritation and allows for optimal absorption of hormones. Choice A: Buttocks - The buttocks may not be an ideal site as it can be covered by clothing and may not allow for proper adherence and absorption. Choice C: Leg - The leg is not typically recommended as a site for the patch due to movement and friction from clothing that may affect patch adhesion and hormone absorption. Choice D: Arm - While the arm is a possible site for the patch, it is not as ideal as the neck because it may be subject to more movement and rubbing against clothing, potentially affecting patch adherence and effectiveness.