ATI RN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client at 12 weeks' gestation reports nausea and vomiting. What is the best dietary advice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day. This advice helps manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy by preventing an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Eating small, frequent meals helps stabilize blood sugar levels and provides a steady source of nutrients for the developing fetus. It also reduces the likelihood of triggering nausea by avoiding large meals. Drinking fluids with meals (choice B) may exacerbate symptoms by filling up the stomach too quickly. Eating three large meals a day (choice A) can lead to overeating and may worsen nausea. Avoiding protein-rich foods (choice D) is not recommended as protein is essential for fetal development and overall health during pregnancy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks' gestation with suspected preterm labor. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer corticosteroids as prescribed. Administering corticosteroids helps accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It is the priority action in suspected preterm labor at 34 weeks' gestation. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: Encouraging ambulation may not be safe in preterm labor as it can increase the risk of delivering the baby prematurely. C: Providing a high-protein snack is not the priority action in suspected preterm labor. D: Monitoring maternal blood pressure is important, but not the priority in this situation where the focus is on preventing complications for the preterm infant.
Question 3 of 9
A postpartum client is getting ready to receive a Depo-Provera injection. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching by the nurse is necessary?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's comparison of receiving a Depo-Provera injection to a rubella injection is incorrect. Depo-Provera is a hormonal contraceptive injection that does not have the same administration process or purpose as a rubella vaccination. This indicates a lack of understanding about the medication. Choice B is not the correct answer because it shows the client's awareness of the importance of weight management and exercise in conjunction with receiving the injection. Choice C is not the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need for a follow-up appointment in 3 months which is necessary for monitoring and continuation of the contraceptive method. Choice D is not the correct answer because it shows the client's understanding of the potential delay in fertility after discontinuing Depo-Provera, which is an important aspect of the contraceptive method that the client should be aware of.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following should be implemented in is experiencing increased oral mucus should provide management of hypovolemic shock due to postpar- parent education on which of the following? tum hemorrhage? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Correctly positioning the infant for feedings. This is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the specific issue of increased oral mucus in an infant, which can be a sign of difficulty feeding and potential aspiration. Positioning the infant correctly can help facilitate safe and effective feeding, reducing the risk of complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: IV fluid replacement with 5% dextrose - This choice does not directly address the issue of increased oral mucus and hypovolemic shock due to postpartum hemorrhage. C: Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation - This choice is not indicated for the given scenario and is more appropriate for a life-threatening emergency situation. D: Administration of oxygen with a nonrebreather - While oxygen may be necessary in certain cases, it does not address the specific issue of increased oral mucus and hypovolemic shock due to postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled cesarean delivery. What is the priority preoperative instruction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Empty your bladder before the procedure. This is the priority preoperative instruction because a full bladder can increase the risk of complications during surgery, such as injury to the bladder or difficulties in catheter insertion. It is essential to ensure the bladder is empty to provide a clear surgical field and prevent urinary retention postoperatively. Explanation for other choices: A: Eating a high-protein meal before surgery is not recommended as it can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. C: Avoiding brushing teeth on the morning of surgery is not a priority instruction. Maintaining oral hygiene is important, but it does not directly impact the surgical procedure. D: Refraining from taking prescribed medications should be discussed with the healthcare provider, as certain medications may need to be taken even on the day of surgery to prevent complications.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected chorioamnionitis. What is the priority nursing assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evaluate fetal heart rate. In chorioamnionitis, fetal distress can occur due to infection and inflammation of the fetal membranes. Monitoring fetal heart rate is crucial to assess the well-being of the baby. Assessing for foul-smelling discharge (A) is important but not the priority. Monitoring maternal blood pressure (B) and checking glucose levels (D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate risk of fetal distress in chorioamnionitis.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is checking postpartum orders, the doctor prescribed bed rest for 6-12 h. The nurse knows this is an appropriate order if the patient had which type of anesthesia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epidural. The rationale for this is that epidural anesthesia is a regional anesthesia that numbs the lower half of the body while allowing the patient to remain conscious. Therefore, prescribing bed rest for 6-12 hours after receiving an epidural is appropriate to ensure the anesthesia wears off gradually and the patient does not experience any complications while regaining sensation and mobility. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Spinal anesthesia also numbs the lower half of the body, but it typically wears off faster than an epidural, so bed rest may not be necessary for as long. B: Pudendal anesthesia is specific to numbing the perineum area and does not affect mobility in the same way as epidural anesthesia. D: General anesthesia does not target a specific area of the body and does not require bed rest for 6-12 hours postpartum.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the findings and continue to monitor the client. This is the appropriate action because the client's fundus is midline and firm, indicating good uterine tone. Lochia rubra and small clots are expected findings in the immediate postpartum period. The nurse should document these findings for future reference and continue to monitor the client's condition. Choice B (Notify the client's provider) is incorrect because there are no concerning signs that warrant immediate provider notification, as the fundus is firm and midline. Choice C (Increase the frequency of fundal massage) is unnecessary since the fundus is already firm at the umbilicus, indicating good uterine tone. Choice D (Encourage the client to empty her bladder) is not the priority in this scenario, as the client's fundal assessment and lochia observations take precedence.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is educating a prenatal client on pregnancy 140 to 90 bpm that begins with the contraction changes and her gastrointestinal system. Which and gradually returns to the normal baseline statement is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heartburn may be relieved by sitting up after. This is because during pregnancy, the growing uterus can push stomach acids upward, causing heartburn. Sitting up after eating can help prevent acid reflux by allowing gravity to keep stomach contents down. Choice A is incorrect as increased saliva production during pregnancy is not related to toothbrush hardness. Choice B is incorrect because uteroplacental insufficiency is not related to the client's gastrointestinal system. Choice C is incorrect as umbilical cord compression is a separate issue and not related to heartburn relief.