A client at 12 weeks' gestation reports mild cramping and spotting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. The priority intervention in a pregnant client experiencing mild cramping and spotting at 12 weeks' gestation is to notify the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial because these symptoms could indicate a potential complication such as a threatened miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy, which require immediate medical assessment and intervention to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Option A, reassuring the client that this is normal, is not the priority as it overlooks the need for a thorough evaluation by the healthcare provider. Option B, encouraging hydration, while important in general prenatal care, is not the priority in this situation where there are concerning symptoms present. Option C, advising the client to avoid heavy lifting, is also not the priority as the focus should be on seeking immediate medical evaluation. From an educational perspective, understanding the significance of timely reporting of any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy is crucial for nurses caring for pregnant clients. This question highlights the importance of prompt assessment and intervention in maternal care to ensure optimal outcomes for both the mother and the baby. It reinforces the concept that early identification and management of complications in pregnancy are essential in promoting maternal and fetal well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A vasectomy involves blocking or cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being ejaculated with semen, making it an effective method of contraception. Choice B is incorrect because the testicles are not removed during a vasectomy, only the vas deferens is altered. Choice C is incorrect because seminal fluid is still produced, but sperm are prevented from entering it. Choice D is incorrect because sperm are not killed, but rather prevented from mixing with semen.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The copper IUD is a highly effective, long-term contraception method that does not interfere with breastfeeding. Choice A is incorrect because oral contraceptives may reduce milk supply, and many types are not recommended during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect because contraceptive injections may not be ideal during breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect because emergency contraception is used only after unprotected sex and is not a long-term solution.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Contraceptive abstinence refers to avoiding penis-in-vagina intercourse to prevent pregnancy. It is a method of birth control where sexual partners choose not to engage in sexual intercourse during fertile periods to avoid the risk of pregnancy. This method relies on refraining from penetrative sex or any ejaculatory contact between the penis and vagina. It is a natural form of birth control and does not involve the use of contraceptives or devices.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Copper intrauterine devices (IUDs) have the best efficacy for prevention of pregnancy among emergency contraception options. Copper IUDs are over 99% effective when used as emergency contraception, making them more reliable than other methods like Plan B, Yuzpe, or progesterone-only EC. This high efficacy is due to the mechanism of action of copper IUDs, which prevent fertilization and implantation of the fertilized egg. Additionally, once inserted, a copper IUD can continue to provide ongoing contraception for up to 10 years, making it a long-term contraceptive option as well.