Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

Question 2 of 5

A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

Question 5 of 5

What is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism in a patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels in the blood when there is a suspected blockage in the pulmonary artery. Administering anticoagulants, although important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism, is not the first step as ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Repositioning the patient or administering IV fluids are not the primary interventions for a suspected pulmonary embolism and are not as essential as providing oxygen support.

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