ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client asks nurse Carlos the rationale for giving multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis. Which is an appropriate response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using multiple drugs for tuberculosis reduces the development of resistant strains of the bacteria. When multiple drugs are used simultaneously, it decreases the likelihood of the bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective over time. Explanation for other choices: A: While using multiple drugs may allow for reduced dosages, the primary rationale is not solely to administer lower levels of drugs. B: Although using multiple drugs may help in managing side effects, the primary rationale is to prevent the development of resistant strains. C: While multiple drugs may have a synergistic effect, the main purpose is to prevent resistance rather than potentiate the action of individual drugs.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff should a client with auto immune disorder be advised to avoid?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being in crowds during the periods of immunosuppression. Clients with autoimmune disorders have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. Being in crowds increases the risk of exposure to various pathogens, potentially leading to infections. Avoiding crowds during periods of immunosuppression helps minimize the risk of infections. A: Resting during the periods of severe exacerbation is important for managing symptoms and conserving energy, but it is not specifically related to avoiding triggers for autoimmune disorders. B: Regular exercise during the periods of remission is beneficial for overall health and can help manage autoimmune disorders, as long as it is appropriate and not excessive. D: Humid environments during the periods of remission do not directly impact autoimmune disorders unless the individual has a specific sensitivity to humidity.
Question 3 of 9
While receiving radiation therapy for the treatment of breast cancer, a client complains of dysphagia and skin texture changes, at the radiation site. Which of the following instructions would be most appropriate to suggest to minimize the risk of complications, and promote healing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat a diet high in protein and calories to optimize tissue repair. Rationale: 1. Protein is essential for tissue repair and healing, which can help counteract the effects of radiation therapy on the skin and swallowing function. 2. Calories are necessary for energy to support the body's healing processes during radiation therapy. 3. A diet high in protein and calories can help maintain overall nutritional status and promote recovery. Incorrect Choices: A: Washing the radiation site vigorously can further irritate the skin, leading to more complications. C: Cool compresses may not be suitable for radiation-induced skin reactions and may not address the underlying issue of dysphagia. D: Drinking warm fluids may not directly address the need for optimal tissue repair and healing.
Question 4 of 9
A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect, especially at higher doses. This is a known adverse reaction to Ketamine administration. Monitoring for muscle rigidity and spasms is important to ensure the safety of the client during and after surgery. Incorrect choices: B: Hiccups - Hiccups are not a common side effect of Ketamine administration. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine is not known to cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine typically does not cause respiratory depression, which is more commonly associated with other anesthetics like opioids. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the known side effects of Ketamine.
Question 5 of 9
What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing frequent mouth care to Mr. Franco is important to remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting oral hygiene. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for mouth care in this case is to address the physical consequences of a seizure, such as tongue biting and potential injury, rather than thirst, tactile stimulation, or prevention of oral mucosal issues related to mouth breathing in a comatose patient.
Question 6 of 9
Which blood product replaces missing clotting factors in the patient who has a bleeding disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryoprecipitate. Cryoprecipitate contains high levels of clotting factors such as fibrinogen, Factor VIII, Factor XIII, and von Willebrand factor, making it the ideal choice to replace missing clotting factors in patients with bleeding disorders. Platelets (A) help with clot formation but do not contain clotting factors. Albumin (B) is a protein used for volume replacement, not clotting factor replacement. Packed RBC (C) is used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in anemic patients, not for clotting factor replacement.
Question 7 of 9
A college student goes to the college clinic and asks the best way to avoid contracting an STD. The nurse provides the clinic’s standard STD teaching. Which statement by the student indicates the need for additional instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This statement indicates a need for additional instruction because questioning a partner about past sexual encounters may not be a reliable method to avoid STDs. Here's the rationale: 1. A: Correct - Acknowledges the reality that engaging in sexual activity carries risks, even with precautions. 2. B: Correct - Emphasizes that abstinence is the most effective way to prevent STD transmission. 3. C: Correct - Using a condom with spermicide can reduce the risk of STD transmission, although it's not foolproof. 4. D: Incorrect - Relying solely on partner questioning is not a comprehensive or foolproof method to prevent STDs. It overlooks the potential for misinformation or lack of disclosure from the partner.
Question 8 of 9
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with multiple myeloma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing bone injury. In multiple myeloma, bone lesions are common due to bone destruction by abnormal plasma cells. Preventing bone injury is crucial to avoid fractures and bone pain. This can be achieved through careful handling, fall prevention, and avoiding activities that may increase the risk of bone damage. Monitoring respiratory status (A) is not the priority in multiple myeloma. Balancing rest and activity (B) is important but not as critical as preventing bone injury. Restricting fluid intake (C) is not typically necessary unless there are specific indications like renal issues.
Question 9 of 9
A client with suspected lymphoma is scheduled for lymphangiography. The nurse should inform the client that this procedure may cause which harmless, temporary change?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bluish urine. During lymphangiography, a contrast dye is injected into the lymphatic vessels, which can be excreted through the urine, causing it to appear bluish temporarily. This change is harmless and resolves on its own. Incorrect Answers: A: Purplish stools - This is not a common side effect of lymphangiography. B: Redness of the upper part of the feet - Redness is not typically associated with this procedure. D: Coldness of the soles - Coldness is not a known temporary change resulting from lymphangiography.