Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client asks nurse Carlos the rationale for giving multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis. Which is an appropriate response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using multiple drugs for tuberculosis reduces the development of resistant strains of the bacteria. When multiple drugs are used simultaneously, it decreases the likelihood of the bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective over time. Explanation for other choices: A: While using multiple drugs may allow for reduced dosages, the primary rationale is not solely to administer lower levels of drugs. B: Although using multiple drugs may help in managing side effects, the primary rationale is to prevent the development of resistant strains. C: While multiple drugs may have a synergistic effect, the main purpose is to prevent resistance rather than potentiate the action of individual drugs.

Question 2 of 5

An adult has been stung by a bee and is in anaphylactic shock. An epinephrine (adrenaline) injection has been given. The nurse would expect which the following if the injection has been effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s breathing will become easier. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps to reverse the severe respiratory symptoms. By administering epinephrine, it causes bronchodilation, which helps improve breathing by opening up the airways. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because epinephrine typically causes an increase in blood pressure due to its vasoconstrictive effects. C is incorrect because angioedema is a potential side effect of anaphylaxis and would not be expected to increase after epinephrine administration. D is incorrect because epinephrine helps to improve alertness and consciousness by increasing blood flow to the brain.

Question 3 of 5

The patient database reveals that a patient has decreased oral intake, decreased oxygen saturation when ambulating, reports of shortness of breath when getting out of bed, and a productive cough. Which elements will the nurse identify as defining characteristics for the diagnostic label of Activity intolerance?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Activity intolerance is defined as insufficient physiological or psychological energy to endure or complete required or desired daily activities. Step 2: In the scenario, the patient experiences shortness of breath when getting out of bed, indicating decreased ability to tolerate physical activity. Step 3: This shortness of breath is a defining characteristic of activity intolerance as it reflects the patient's limited ability to perform activities of daily living. Step 4: Other symptoms like decreased oral intake, decreased oxygen saturation, and productive cough may be related to other health issues but are not specific to activity intolerance. Step 5: Therefore, choice B is the correct answer as it includes a key defining characteristic of activity intolerance, while other choices do not directly relate to the concept.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on the buttocks. Which action will the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassess the patient and situation. The nurse should reassess to determine the cause of the pressure ulcer, evaluate the effectiveness of the current turning schedule, and identify any contributing factors. This allows for a more targeted intervention plan. B: Incorrect. Simply increasing the frequency of turning may not address the underlying issue causing the pressure ulcer. C: Incorrect. Delegating turning to nursing assistive personnel without reassessment may not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. D: Incorrect. Applying medication without reassessment may not address the underlying cause of the pressure ulcer and could potentially worsen the condition.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink, frothy sputum. This is because pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. Furosemide IV is a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, including the lungs. Resolving pink, frothy sputum indicates that the treatment is effectively reducing the fluid in the lungs. Incorrect choices: A: Pedal edema - This refers to swelling in the feet and ankles, which is not directly related to pulmonary edema. C: Jugular vein distention - This is a sign of heart failure, not specifically pulmonary edema. D: Bradycardia - This is a slow heart rate and not a direct indicator of pulmonary edema resolution.

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