ATI RN
PN Vital Signs Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client arrives in the emergency department with and is diagnosed with ischemic stroke. A possible treatment option is tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Time of onset of current stroke. This is the priority nursing assessment because the effectiveness of t-PA administration is time-dependent, with a narrow window of 4.5 hours from symptom onset. Knowing the time of onset will help determine if the client is within the appropriate timeframe for t-PA administration, which can improve outcomes. A: Current medications - While important, knowing the time of onset is more critical for timely intervention in ischemic stroke. B: Complete physical and history - Important for overall assessment but not as time-sensitive as determining the stroke onset time. D: Upcoming surgical procedures - Not relevant for immediate management of ischemic stroke with t-PA.
Question 2 of 5
A physical therapist using an electrical stimulation device attempts to quantify several characteristics of a monophasic waveform. When measuring phase charge, the standard unit of measure is the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: coulomb. Phase charge, which is the amount of electrical charge delivered during each phase of the waveform, is measured in coulombs. Coulomb is the standard unit of electric charge in the International System of Units (SI). It represents the quantity of electricity transported in one second by a current of one ampere. Ampere (B) is the unit of electric current, ohm (C) is the unit of resistance, and second (D) is the unit of time. Therefore, coulomb is the appropriate unit for measuring phase charge in a monophasic waveform.
Question 3 of 5
A patient rehabilitating from a spinal cord injury is able to direct their own care but is dependent on others for all activities of daily living. The patient's injury would be classified as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: C4. This is because the patient is able to direct their own care, which indicates intact cognitive function, a characteristic of C4 spinal cord injury level. The patient being dependent on others for all activities of daily living suggests a high level of physical impairment, aligning with the functional limitations associated with C4 injury. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they represent higher spinal cord injury levels with varying degrees of upper extremity function and independence in self-care activities.
Question 4 of 5
A physical therapist observes a patient performing a deep squat. Which muscle group is MOST active during the ascent phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The hip extensors are most active during the ascent phase of a deep squat as they are responsible for extending the hip joint, which is required to stand up from the squat position. Knee flexors, ankle dorsiflexors, and trunk flexors are not primarily responsible for the movement pattern of ascending from a deep squat. Hip extensors play a crucial role in this phase by generating the necessary force to lift the body upright.
Question 5 of 5
A physical therapist examines a patient with a history of recurrent lateral ankle sprains. Which special test would BEST assess ligamentous integrity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior drawer test. This test assesses the integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament in the lateral ankle. Step 1: Stabilize the lower leg and move the ankle into slight dorsiflexion. Step 2: Grasp the calcaneus and apply an anterior force. Step 3: Positive test indicates excessive anterior translation, suggesting ligamentous laxity. Incorrect choices: B: Thompson test assesses Achilles tendon integrity, not ligamentous integrity. C: Talar tilt test assesses calcaneofibular and deltoid ligament integrity, not specifically lateral ligament. D: Kleiger test assesses syndesmotic ligament integrity, not lateral ligament.