A client, age 64, has complaints of frequent spells of fatigue and inability to sleep. She also reports hair loss and an allergy to seafood. Which of the following information is essential to consider before initiating a thyroid test for the client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C) Allergy to seafood. Before initiating a thyroid test for the client, it is crucial to consider her seafood allergy because iodine, which is commonly found in seafood, is essential for thyroid hormone production. A seafood allergy can impact iodine intake, potentially affecting thyroid function. Option A) Her age is not as crucial in this context as the presence of a seafood allergy, as thyroid disorders can occur at any age. Option B) Complaints of fatigue and inability to sleep are symptoms commonly associated with thyroid disorders, but the allergy to seafood takes precedence in this case. Option D) Hair loss is also a symptom of thyroid dysfunction, but the seafood allergy is a more direct consideration before conducting a thyroid test due to its impact on iodine availability for thyroid hormone synthesis. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering all relevant factors, including allergies, in the diagnostic process. It emphasizes the interconnectedness of different body systems and the need for a comprehensive assessment before making clinical decisions in endocrine health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Calcium. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damage to the parathyroid glands which can lead to hypocalcemia. Close monitoring of calcium levels is crucial as low calcium levels can result in tetany, muscle spasms, and even seizures. Option B) Sodium is not typically affected by a thyroidectomy and would not require closer monitoring in this scenario. Option C) Potassium levels are not directly impacted by a thyroidectomy and do not need to be closely monitored in this case. Option D) White blood cells are not typically affected by a thyroidectomy and would not be the priority laboratory value to monitor in this situation. Educationally, understanding the specific complications of thyroidectomy and the importance of monitoring calcium levels postoperatively is vital for nurses and healthcare providers caring for these patients. This knowledge ensures early detection and intervention in case of hypocalcemia, ultimately improving patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Note the time of the client's first void and collect urine for 24 hours. This is correct because for a 24-hour urine specimen collection, it is essential to start by noting the exact time of the first void and then collect all subsequent urine voided over the next 24 hours, including the final void at the same time the collection started. This ensures accurate measurement of substances in the urine over a full 24-hour period. Choice B is incorrect because the preservative should be added to the container at the beginning, not the end, to maintain the integrity of the specimen. Choice C is incorrect because the 24-hour collection starts with the first void, not the first morning urine. Choice D is incorrect as missing even one urine sample during the 24-hour collection can compromise the accuracy of the results.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the drug of choice for treating anaphylactic reactions due to its ability to rapidly reverse the cardiovascular and pulmonary symptoms. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening up the airways, which helps counteract the potentially life-threatening effects of anaphylaxis. Atropine (A) is used for bradycardia, Diphenhydramine (B) for mild allergic reactions, and Isoproterenol (D) for bradycardia or heart block. Epinephrine is the most appropriate choice in this scenario due to its immediate and broad-spectrum effects in managing anaphylactic reactions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: β-Blocker. β-Blockers are indicated in the management of myocardial infarction as they help reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility. This results in less strain on the heart muscle and can improve survival outcomes. Additionally, β-blockers can prevent arrhythmias and reduce the risk of recurrent infarction. In this scenario, where the patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction with ST-segment elevations, the use of a β-blocker is crucial in managing the condition and improving the patient's prognosis. Summary of other choices: B: α-Agonist - Not indicated in the management of myocardial infarction. C: Muscarinic agonist - Not indicated in the management of myocardial infarction. D: Neuromuscular blocker - Not indicated in the management of myocardial infarction.