A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock." Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule to maintain therapeutic blood levels. Taking the medication every 4 hours around the clock helps to ensure consistent levels in the body, maximizing its efficacy. Taking it with meals (choice A) or on an empty stomach (choice B) is not specifically indicated for zidovudine. Choice D is incorrect as taking OTC drugs without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to drug interactions or adverse effects. Hence, choice C is the most appropriate instruction to ensure the client benefits from the medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. Cancer cells commonly metastasize to the liver due to its rich blood supply, making it an ideal environment for tumor growth. Liver metastasis can occur from various primary cancer sites. The liver filters blood and is susceptible to receiving cancer cells circulating in the bloodstream. Metastasis to the colon (B) is less common as it is typically the primary site for colon cancer. Metastasis to the reproductive tract (C) can occur but is not as common as liver metastasis. White blood cells (D) are a part of the immune system and do not serve as a common site for cancer metastasis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rolling Mr. Gabatan on his abdomen, placing a pad under his head, and covering him with any material available is the appropriate action. This position helps protect his airway and prevents potential complications from a possible spinal injury. It also allows for better assessment of his condition by healthcare professionals. Choice A is incorrect because leaving Mr. Gabatan on his back and instructing him to move can worsen any spinal injury he may have sustained. Choice B is incorrect because raising him to a sitting position can also exacerbate his condition. Choice D is incorrect because moving him without proper stabilization can lead to further injury.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Discuss the negative feelings with the client. This is the most appropriate action as it allows the nurse to address and manage their own biases and attitudes towards the client in a professional and constructive manner. By acknowledging and discussing these feelings with the client, the nurse can work towards providing non-judgmental care and fostering a therapeutic relationship. A: Sharing these feelings with the client is not appropriate as it can harm the nurse-client relationship and potentially lead to discrimination. C: Developing a written interview form is not addressing the immediate issue of the nurse's negative attitude towards the client. D: Avoiding eye contact with the client is unprofessional and does not address the underlying issue of the nurse's negative feelings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it follows the SMART approach: Specific (monitor heart rhythm), Measurable (continuously this shift), Achievable (feed self at all mealtimes), Relevant (shortness of breath), and Time-bound (today). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice C focuses on the nurse's action, not patient outcomes. Choice D lacks specificity and measurability, focusing on the nurse's actions rather than patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7th cranial nerve. Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (7th cranial nerve), leading to facial muscle weakness or paralysis. The 3rd cranial nerve (choice A) controls eye movement, the 5th cranial nerve (choice C) is responsible for facial sensation and chewing, and the 8th cranial nerve (choice D) is related to hearing and balance. Bell's palsy specifically affects the facial muscles, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter that mediates the sympathetic response. It is released by sympathetic nerve endings and acts on adrenergic receptors in various target organs to initiate the "fight or flight" response. Prostaglandin, acetylcholine, and serotonin do not directly mediate the sympathetic response and are involved in different physiological processes.