A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. Antibodies are a type of protein produced by the immune system to help identify and neutralize pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Proteins are composed of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Antibodies have a specific structure that allows them to bind to specific antigens. Fat (A), Sugar (C), and Carbohydrates (D) are not primary components of antibodies and do not play a significant role in their structure or function.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. A balanced and varied diet provides essential nutrients for immune function. 2. Including a wide range of foods ensures intake of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants crucial for immune health. 3. Avoiding extremes like excessive immune-enhancing formulas or eliminating polyunsaturated fatty acids maintains balance. 4. Essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids are beneficial but should be part of a well-rounded diet. 5. For clients with immune-mediated disorders, individualized dietary advice may be necessary. Summary: - A: Immune-enhancing formulas may not be necessary and could disrupt balance. - B: Avoiding all polyunsaturated fatty acids is not advisable as some are essential for health. - C: Increasing essential fatty acids is beneficial but should be part of a balanced diet.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock." Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule to maintain therapeutic blood levels. Taking the medication every 4 hours around the clock helps to ensure consistent levels in the body, maximizing its efficacy. Taking it with meals (choice A) or on an empty stomach (choice B) is not specifically indicated for zidovudine. Choice D is incorrect as taking OTC drugs without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to drug interactions or adverse effects. Hence, choice C is the most appropriate instruction to ensure the client benefits from the medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals often experience age-related hearing loss, especially in high frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice helps improve the clarity and understanding of communication. Incorrect choices: A: Leaning and shouting can be perceived as aggressive and disrespectful to the elderly client. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking does not enhance communication and might be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it encourages the novice nurse to independently observe the situation with a peer, validate the data, and discuss afterward. This approach promotes reflection, peer learning, and validation of collected data, which are essential for learning and growth. It allows the nurse to self-assess and correct errors through discussion and feedback. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the need for validation and peer feedback. Choice C is incorrect as repeating the same mistake without guidance does not promote learning. Choice D is incorrect as meeting with the nurse manager may not provide the same level of peer learning and validation as observing with a peer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7th cranial nerve. Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (7th cranial nerve), leading to facial muscle weakness or paralysis. The 3rd cranial nerve (choice A) controls eye movement, the 5th cranial nerve (choice C) is responsible for facial sensation and chewing, and the 8th cranial nerve (choice D) is related to hearing and balance. Bell's palsy specifically affects the facial muscles, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purplish discoloration of hands and feet. Hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia is characterized by pain, swelling, and purplish discoloration of the hands and feet due to vaso-occlusive crisis. Unequal growth of fingers and toes (A), webbing between fingers and toes (C), and deformities of wrists and ankles (D) are not typical findings associated with hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia.