A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removal of the transplanted kidney. Hyperacute rejection is a severe and immediate immune response to the transplanted organ. In this case, the transplanted kidney must be removed promptly to prevent further complications, as it is irreversibly damaged. High-dose IV cyclosporine (B) is used for immunosuppression but is not effective in treating hyperacute rejection. Bone marrow transplant (C) is not indicated for kidney rejection. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (D) is used for acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client wears a watch and wedding band. This is because metal objects such as watches and jewelry can be hazardous during an MRI scan due to the strong magnetic field, leading to potential movement or heating of the metal objects, causing harm to the client. A: The client lies still - This is important for obtaining clear images during an MRI scan and does not pose a threat to the client. C: The client asks questions - Asking questions during an MRI scan does not pose a direct threat to the client's safety. D: The client hears thumping sounds - Thumping sounds are a normal part of the MRI scan and do not pose a threat to the client's safety.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. Severe diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including low calcium levels. Decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Calcium is essential for proper muscle function and nerve transmission. Hypernatremia (A) is high sodium levels, not related to decreased muscle tone. Hyperchloremia (B) is high chloride levels, not associated with muscle tone changes. Hypokalemia (C) is low potassium levels, which can cause muscle weakness but not specifically decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes like hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. This is crucial to report immediately because tamoxifen can cause serious eye problems such as retinopathy. Vision changes could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction that requires prompt medical attention to prevent permanent damage. Headache, hearing loss, and anorexia are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are less urgent in nature. Reporting vision changes promptly can help prevent irreversible harm and ensure timely intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: liver function tests. Isoniazid and Rifampicin are known to potentially cause hepatotoxicity, leading to abnormal liver function test results. Liver function tests measure enzymes and proteins that indicate liver health. Gallbladder studies (A), thyroid function tests (B), and blood sugar levels (D) are not directly affected by these medications and would not show abnormal results due to their use.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - the circulating and scrub nurse first assistant. The circulating nurse is responsible for counting needles, sponges, and instruments during the closing of the surgical incision to ensure nothing is left inside the patient. The scrub nurse first assistant also plays a crucial role in this process by assisting in the counting and keeping track of the items used during the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because the surgeon and anesthesiologist (A) are not typically involved in counting items during the surgical closure, the surgeon and the registered (B) may not have the necessary training for accurate counting, and the anesthesiologist and anesthetist (D) are not directly involved in the surgical closing process.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is continuously monitoring specific aspects such as vital signs, pupils, and orientation at regular intervals, which is characteristic of a focused assessment. This type of assessment allows the nurse to gather specific data related to the client's condition and respond promptly to any changes. A: Initial assessment is conducted upon admission to establish baseline data. C: Time-lapsed reassessment involves comparing current data to previous assessments over a longer period. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify life-threatening issues. By systematically assessing the client's vital signs, pupils, and orientation at frequent intervals, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care in the intensive care unit setting.