ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse teaches a client newly diagnosed with diabetes how to administer insulin. What type of nursing intervention is this?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Independent intervention) Rationale: 1. Independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without a doctor's order. 2. Teaching a client how to administer insulin falls under the scope of nursing practice. 3. Nurses have the knowledge and authority to educate clients on self-care management. 4. This intervention does not require collaboration with other healthcare providers. Summary: B: Dependent interventions require a doctor's order. C: Interdependent interventions involve collaboration with other healthcare providers. D: Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pain. This is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis because the patient has a right femur fracture and reports moderate discomfort. The priority is to address the acute pain associated with the fracture. Posttrauma syndrome (A) typically involves a broader range of emotional and psychological responses beyond just moderate discomfort. Constipation (B) is not the priority in this case, as it is not directly related to the patient's current condition. Anxiety (D) may be present but addressing the acute pain takes precedence in this situation to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.
Question 5 of 9
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.
Question 6 of 9
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.
Question 7 of 9
When the nurse is reviewing a patient’s daily laboratory test results, which of the ff. electrolyte imbalances should the nurse recognize as predisposing the patient to digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Digoxin toxicity can be potentiated by hypokalemia due to the risk of enhanced cardiac toxicity. 2. Hypokalemia can lead to increased sensitivity of cardiac cells to digoxin. 3. Low potassium levels can disrupt the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, enhancing digoxin's effects. 4. The nurse should recognize hypokalemia as a predisposing factor for digoxin toxicity. Summary: A: Hypokalemia is the correct answer as it enhances digoxin toxicity by affecting cardiac function. B: Hyponatremia does not directly predispose to digoxin toxicity. C: Hyperkalemia is not a predisposing factor and can actually counteract digoxin's effects. D: Hypernatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
A client is being treated for acute pyelonephritis and will undergo laboratory tests. These tests are expected to help determine the clients BUN, creatinine, and serum electrolyte levels. Why should the nurse evaluate these test results?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To determine clients response to therapy. Evaluating BUN, creatinine, and serum electrolyte levels in a client being treated for acute pyelonephritis helps the nurse assess the effectiveness of the therapy. Changes in these levels indicate how well the kidneys are functioning and how the client is responding to treatment. Monitoring these parameters allows for adjustments in therapy if needed. Incorrect choices: A: To determine the severity of the disorder - While these tests can provide information about the severity of kidney dysfunction, the primary focus is on monitoring the response to therapy. B: To identify signs of fluid retention - While BUN and creatinine levels can indirectly indicate fluid status, the main purpose of evaluating these tests is to assess therapy response. C: To determine the location of discomfort - These tests do not provide information about the location of discomfort but rather focus on kidney function and response to treatment.
Question 9 of 9
A novice nurse collects data on a newly admitted client. Upon evaluation of this data, the nurse provides an erroneous interpretation. What is a corrective action for this interpretation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it encourages the novice nurse to independently observe the situation with a peer, validate the data, and discuss afterward. This approach promotes reflection, peer learning, and validation of collected data, which are essential for learning and growth. It allows the nurse to self-assess and correct errors through discussion and feedback. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the need for validation and peer feedback. Choice C is incorrect as repeating the same mistake without guidance does not promote learning. Choice D is incorrect as meeting with the nurse manager may not provide the same level of peer learning and validation as observing with a peer.