ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.
Question 2 of 9
When caring for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following would be the most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a client with a fractured rib?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Apply immobilization device after examination by physician Rationale: 1. Immobilization helps reduce pain and prevent further injury. 2. Physician examination ensures proper diagnosis and treatment plan. 3. Immobilization device may include chest binders or splints for support. 4. It is crucial to follow medical advice to prevent complications. Summary: B: Discouraging deep breaths can lead to respiratory complications. C: Advising against analgesics can increase pain and hinder recovery. D: Increased fluid intake is important but not directly related to rib fracture care.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is one of the discharge criteria from ambulatory surgery for patients following surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understands discharge instructions. This is crucial for patient safety and recovery post-surgery. Understanding discharge instructions ensures patients know how to care for themselves at home, manage medications, recognize warning signs, and follow-up instructions. Choice A is incorrect as patients should not drive after surgery due to potential impairment. Choice B is incorrect as IV narcotics administration timing is not a discharge criterion. Choice C is irrelevant to the patient's readiness for discharge. Understanding discharge instructions is the key factor in ensuring the patient's well-being and recovery after ambulatory surgery.
Question 5 of 9
A client comes to the clinic complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and a low-grade fever. Physical examination reveals a slight enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. To assess possible causes for the fever, it would be most appropriate for the nurse to initially ask: a."Have you bee sexually active lately?" b, "Do you have a sore throat at the present time?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: - The correct answer is A, "Have you been exposed recently to anyone with an infection?" because it helps assess potential sources of infection causing the low-grade fever and other symptoms. - Choice B is irrelevant as the client's current sore throat is not the main concern. - Choice C and D do not address the potential infectious etiology of the symptoms. - Overall, assessing recent exposure to infections is crucial in identifying possible sources of the client's symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is intervening for a patient that has a risk for a urinary infection. Which direct care nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teaches proper handwashing technique. This is the most appropriate intervention because proper handwashing can help prevent the spread of infection, including urinary infections. Teaching the patient about handwashing empowers them to take control of their own hygiene, reducing the risk of infection. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Properly cleans the patient's toilet - While important for maintaining cleanliness, this does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection. C: Transports urine specimen to the lab - This is not a direct care intervention for preventing urinary infections. D: Informs the oncoming nurse during hand-off - Hand-off communication is important for continuity of care but does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection.
Question 8 of 9
An 83-year old client diagnosed with COPD has been receiving 1L of oxygen via nasal cannula. When the relatives visited, the sister of the client increased the oxygen to 7L per minute because she says that the client “looks like he is having difficulty getting air.” What should the nurse’s initial action be?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to choose option C: Notify the physician. Increasing oxygen without a healthcare provider's order can be harmful, especially in COPD patients prone to retaining carbon dioxide. The nurse should communicate the situation to the physician to assess the client's condition and adjust the oxygen therapy appropriately. Option A is incorrect as it neglects the potential risks of high oxygen levels. Option B is incorrect as immediate decrease without proper assessment can be dangerous. Option D is not the priority when the client's oxygen therapy needs evaluation.
Question 9 of 9
Major treatment modalities for breast cancer are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the treatment modalities listed - surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy - play essential roles in managing breast cancer. Surgery removes the primary tumor, radiotherapy targets any remaining microscopic disease, and chemotherapy systematically destroys cancer cells throughout the body. Each modality addresses a different aspect of the disease, making a comprehensive treatment approach necessary for the best outcomes. Choices A, B, and C alone do not cover all necessary aspects of breast cancer treatment, hence D is the correct choice.