Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium is a major cause of peptic ulcers by weakening the protective mucous layer of the stomach and duodenum. Research has shown a strong association between H. pylori infection and peptic ulcer development. Genetic defects in the gastric mucosa (choice A) are not a proven cause of peptic ulcers. While a high-fat diet (choice C) can exacerbate symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Work-related stress (choice D) may exacerbate symptoms but is not a direct cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, choice B is the most supported and logical answer based on current research findings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Failing to involve the client in the planning process. This is because involving the client in the planning process is crucial for promoting client-centered care and ensuring that the outcomes are realistic and aligned with the client's goals. By engaging the client, the nurse can better understand their preferences and values, leading to more effective planning and goal setting. Choice B is incorrect as collecting data to establish a database is related to assessment, not outcome identification and planning. Choice C is incorrect as stating specific and measurable outcomes based on nursing diagnoses is actually a key component of effective outcome identification and planning. Choice D is incorrect as writing clear nursing orders, although important, is more related to implementation rather than outcome identification and planning.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.