A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

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Question 1 of 5

A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Question 2 of 5

The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is a type of immunotherapy used to treat bladder cancer by stimulating the immune system to attack cancer cells. One common side effect of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This occurs because BCG irritates the bladder lining, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware and can report any excessive bleeding to their healthcare provider promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not known to cause renal calculi. B: Delayed ejaculation - BCG therapy is not associated with delayed ejaculation. D: Impotence - BCG therapy is not linked to impotence.

Question 3 of 5

Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.

Question 4 of 5

Major treatment modalities for breast cancer are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the treatment modalities listed - surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy - play essential roles in managing breast cancer. Surgery removes the primary tumor, radiotherapy targets any remaining microscopic disease, and chemotherapy systematically destroys cancer cells throughout the body. Each modality addresses a different aspect of the disease, making a comprehensive treatment approach necessary for the best outcomes. Choices A, B, and C alone do not cover all necessary aspects of breast cancer treatment, hence D is the correct choice.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is one of the discharge criteria from ambulatory surgery for patients following surgery?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understands discharge instructions. This is crucial for patient safety and recovery post-surgery. Understanding discharge instructions ensures patients know how to care for themselves at home, manage medications, recognize warning signs, and follow-up instructions. Choice A is incorrect as patients should not drive after surgery due to potential impairment. Choice B is incorrect as IV narcotics administration timing is not a discharge criterion. Choice C is irrelevant to the patient's readiness for discharge. Understanding discharge instructions is the key factor in ensuring the patient's well-being and recovery after ambulatory surgery.

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