ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.
Question 2 of 9
What are the periods in life when the need for iron increases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy. During pregnancy, the need for iron increases significantly to support the growth of the fetus and to prevent maternal anemia. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin and for oxygen transport in the blood. In contrast, infants require iron for rapid growth and development, making choice B partially correct. Choice C (Old age) and choice D (Male reproductive years) are incorrect as the need for iron typically decreases in old age and remains relatively stable during male reproductive years.
Question 3 of 9
A 68-year old client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the following disorders?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity. The patient needs many nursing interventions, including a dressing change, several intravenous antibiotics, and a walk. Which factors does the nurse consider when prioritizing interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ranking all the patient's nursing diagnoses in order of priority allows the nurse to address the most critical needs first. By prioritizing based on the urgency and potential impact on the patient's health, the nurse can ensure that interventions are carried out effectively. B is incorrect because priorities may need to be adjusted based on the patient's changing condition. C is incorrect as priorities should consider not only physiological but also psychological and sociological factors. D is incorrect because time is an influencing factor, but it should not be the sole consideration when prioritizing interventions.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient, such as their feelings, perceptions, and symptoms. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective as it is based on their personal experience. The other options (A, B, D) are objective data as they can be measured or observed directly without interpretation. The patient's temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. Therefore, only choice C fits the definition of subjective data in a nursing assessment.
Question 6 of 9
A patient teaching plan should include which of the ff. lifestyle modifications to help control hypertension?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Regular aerobic exercise helps lower blood pressure by improving heart health and circulation. Step 2: Exercise reduces stress and promotes weight loss, factors that contribute to hypertension control. Step 3: Alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure and should be limited or avoided. Step 4: Smoking and using low-tar cigarettes can still raise blood pressure and have other negative health effects. Step 5: Daily multivitamin supplements do not directly impact blood pressure control.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse identifies Fatigue as a health problem and nursing diagnosis for a client receiving home care for metastatic cancer. What statement or question would be best to validate this client problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves collaboration with the client to validate their experience. It shows respect for the client's perspective and promotes open communication. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks client involvement. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's interpretation rather than the client's experience. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as accusatory or judgmental, lacking empathy.
Question 8 of 9
A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client after thyroidectomy for Grave’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Patients with Grave's disease who undergo thyroidectomy require regular follow-up care for monitoring thyroid hormone levels and overall health. Step 2: Regular follow-up care ensures early detection of any complications or recurrence of the disease. Step 3: Monitoring helps in adjusting medication doses and managing any potential side effects. Step 4: Choice A is important but not specific to thyroidectomy for Grave's disease. Choice B is not typically used post-thyroidectomy. Choice D may be beneficial but not a priority compared to regular follow-up care.