A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to share any additional information they may have forgotten or overlooked, ensuring a thorough health history interview. Choice A is incorrect as it implies the interviewer is unprepared or disinterested. Choice C is inappropriate as it may make the patient feel guilty or inadequate. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the possibility of gathering more relevant information from the patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phagocytosis. Macrophages and neutrophils are both types of phagocytes responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens such as bacteria. This process helps in clearing infections and maintaining immune homeostasis. Summary: - Choice B (Complement fixation) is incorrect as it refers to a process where complement proteins bind to pathogens to enhance their removal by phagocytes. - Choice C (Antibody production) is incorrect as macrophages and neutrophils do not produce antibodies. They mainly rely on phagocytosis for pathogen clearance. - Choice D (Suppression of autoimmunity) is incorrect as these cells are involved in innate immunity and do not play a direct role in regulating autoimmunity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Platelet count. Zidovudine (AZT) is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet production. Monitoring platelet count is crucial to detect early signs of thrombocytopenia, a common adverse effect of AZT. Rationale: A) RBC count: AZT can cause anemia, not specifically affecting the RBC count. B) Serum calcium: AZT does not typically affect calcium levels. C) Fasting blood glucose: AZT can cause hyperglycemia, but fasting blood glucose monitoring is not as critical as monitoring platelet count for AZT therapy.