ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child with foul-smelling diarrhea had trophozoites with two nuclei and flagella identified in stool microscopy. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite that causes foul-smelling diarrhea with trophozoites having two nuclei and flagella in stool microscopy. The presence of flagella and two nuclei is characteristic of Giardia lamblia. Entamoeba histolytica (Choice B) causes amoebic dysentery with trophozoites containing ingested RBCs. Trichomonas vaginalis (Choice C) is a sexually transmitted protozoan causing vaginitis with a distinctive pear-shaped trophozoite. Balantidium coli (Choice D) is a ciliated protozoan causing diarrhea with trophozoites containing a single nucleus.
Question 2 of 9
The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: protozoans. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms that possess both a macronucleus, responsible for general cell functions, and a micronucleus, involved in genetic processes like reproduction. Algae (choice A) typically have a single nucleus, fungi (choice B) lack distinct macronucleus and micronucleus structures, and slime molds (choice D) do not have the same nucleus organization as protozoans. Thus, protozoans are the only group among the choices that exhibit the specific characteristics of having both a macronucleus and a micronucleus.
Question 3 of 9
Gram-negative, capsulated bacteria with capsule, lactose-positive colonies. Isolated for the first time in pneumonia, but have more important role in urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, nosocomial infections:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is gram-negative, capsulated, and forms lactose-positive colonies. It was first isolated in pneumonia but is more commonly associated with urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, and nosocomial infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae fits all the characteristics mentioned in the question, making it the correct choice. Incorrect choices: A: Staphylococcus aureus is gram-positive and does not have a capsule. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is also gram-positive and does not fit the description given. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an acid-fast bacterium associated with tuberculosis, but it is neither gram-negative nor lactose-positive.
Question 4 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory has received smears from the sputum of a patient with a chronic pulmonary disease. Microscopical examination of the smears stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen technique revealed red bacilli. What property of the tuberculosis bacillus has shown itself?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid resistance. The Ziehl-Neelsen staining technique is specifically used to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is resistant to acid decolorization. This property allows the tuberculosis bacillus to retain the stain even after exposure to acid-alcohol, appearing red under the microscope. Explanation of incorrect choices: B: Alkali resistance - This property is not relevant in the context of Ziehl-Neelsen staining for acid-fast bacteria. C: Alcohol resistance - While alcohol resistance is related to acid-fastness, it is not the specific property highlighted by Ziehl-Neelsen staining. D: Capsule formation - Capsule formation is a different characteristic and not directly related to the staining behavior of acid-fast bacteria in the Ziehl-Neelsen technique.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of forming endospores?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium tetani. Endospores are formed by certain bacteria as a survival mechanism in harsh conditions. Clostridium species, including C. tetani, have the ability to form endospores. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Neisseria gonorrhoeae (C), and Escherichia coli (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococci bacterium, and Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium. Therefore, the correct choice is Clostridium tetani as it is known for its ability to form endospores.
Question 6 of 9
Which organism produces a toxin that blocks neuromuscular transmission in cholinergic motor neurons:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces botulinum toxin, which blocks neuromuscular transmission by inhibiting the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to muscle weakness and paralysis. Shigella dysenteriae (A) causes dysentery but does not affect neuromuscular transmission. Clostridium tetani (B) produces tetanus toxin, which affects inhibitory neurons in the spinal cord, leading to muscle spasm. Corynebacterium diphtheriae (C) produces diphtheria toxin, which affects protein synthesis in cells, not neuromuscular transmission.
Question 7 of 9
Which one is true about sexually transmitted infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a soft chancre is a type of sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. It presents as a painless ulcer on the genitals. The other choices are incorrect. B is incorrect because STIs can enter the body through various routes, not only the urogenital tract mucosa. C is incorrect because immunity to syphilis is not lifelong; reinfection is possible. D is incorrect because STIs can occur in any country regardless of social status or hygiene levels.
Question 8 of 9
The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: intravenous administration. This route bypasses the first-pass metabolism, allowing the drug to directly enter the bloodstream for immediate distribution. In contrast, on the skin (A) and sublingual (D) routes have slower absorption rates due to barriers like skin layers or mucous membranes. Intramuscular (C) absorption is slower than intravenous due to slower perfusion rates in muscle tissues. Overall, intravenous administration provides the fastest and most direct route for drug absorption, making it the most rapid method.
Question 9 of 9
A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.