ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child is undergoing testing for food allergies after experiencing unexplained signs and symptoms of hypersensitivity. What food items would the nurse inform the parents are common allergens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eggs and wheat. This is because eggs and wheat are common food allergens in children. Eggs contain proteins that can trigger allergic reactions, while wheat contains gluten, a common allergen. Citrus fruits and rice (choice A) are not common allergens. Root vegetables and tomatoes (choice B) are also less likely to cause allergies. Hard cheeses and vegetable oils (choice D) are not commonly associated with food allergies in children. Therefore, informing the parents about eggs and wheat as common allergens is crucial for the child's testing and management of food allergies.
Question 2 of 9
Which types of nurses make the best communicatorswith patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport. A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator. C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator. D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.
Question 3 of 9
Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it shows that the medication is effectively preventing hyperreflexia, a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Drowsiness (choice A) can indicate toxicity. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour (choice B) is not specific to magnesium sulfate levels. Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (choice D) is indicative of respiratory depression, a sign of magnesium toxicity. Thus, choice C is the best assessment to indicate a therapeutic level of medication in a patient with preeclampsia taking magnesium sulfate.
Question 4 of 9
Initiate feeding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to verbalize concerns can help alleviate anxiety by allowing the patient to express emotions and fears. This intervention promotes emotional expression and provides an outlet for the patient to discuss their worries. This can lead to increased understanding and support. Incorrect answers: A: Administering antianxiety medications does not address the underlying cause of anxiety and may lead to dependency. B: Instructing the family on planning care does not directly address the patient's anxiety. D: Distracting the patient may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of anxiety related to lack of control over health circumstances.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because putting on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves during a procedure violates standard precautions by increasing contamination risk. Here's the rationale: 1. Standard precautions require removing soiled gloves before putting on new ones to prevent cross-contamination. 2. Wearing multiple gloves increases the risk of tearing and exposure to pathogens. 3. This behavior shows a lack of understanding of proper infection control practices. Summary of other choices: A: Wearing face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound is a correct practice. B: Washing hands with waterless antiseptic after removing soiled gloves is correct. D: Placing a used needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant container without capping the needle is incorrect, but not as severe as choice C.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss. In PCOS, weight loss can help improve hormone balance and fertility by reducing insulin resistance and regulating hormone levels. Excess weight can exacerbate symptoms of PCOS. Kegel exercises (A) are beneficial for pelvic floor strength but do not directly address hormone imbalance. Increased fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not specifically target hormone imbalance. Topical antibiotics (D) are unrelated to PCOS treatment.
Question 9 of 9
A patients ocular tumor has necessitated enucleation and the patient will be fitted with a prosthesis. The nurse should address what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed body image. Enucleation can have a significant impact on a patient's self-image and self-esteem. By addressing this nursing diagnosis, the nurse can help the patient cope with the changes in their physical appearance and support them in adjusting to wearing a prosthesis. Summary: - Choice B (Chronic pain) is incorrect because enucleation may cause acute pain initially, but chronic pain is not a common concern post-enucleation. - Choice C (Ineffective protection) is incorrect because enucleation does not necessarily affect the eye's protection mechanism. - Choice D (Unilateral neglect) is incorrect as it refers to a neurological condition unrelated to the patient's situation post-enucleation.