ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child is receiving maintenance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the IV fluids for a 19.5 kg child: 1. For the first 10 kg: 1000 mL 2. For the weight between 10-20 kg: (19.5 kg - 10 kg) * 50 mL/kg = 475 mL Total IV fluids = 1000 mL + 475 mL = 1475 mL To convert to mL per hour: 1475 mL / 24 hours = ~61 mL/hr Therefore, the correct answer is B (61 mL/hr). Incorrect Choices: A (24 mL/hr): Incorrect, as it doesn't consider the additional fluids for the weight between 10-20 kg. C (73 mL/hr) and D (58 mL/hr): Incorrect, as these values are not obtained from the correct calculation based on the given formula.
Question 2 of 9
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
Question 3 of 9
When performing an initial pulmonary artery occlusion pr essure (PAOP), what are the best nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. This is because inflating the balloon within this time frame allows for accurate measurement of PAOP without causing complications like pulmonary edema. Noting the waveform change helps in determining the accurate pressure reading. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: Inflating the balloon with air and recording the volume necessary is not a recommended practice as it can lead to inaccurate readings and potential harm to the patient. C: Maintaining the balloon inflated for 8 hours following insertion is unnecessary and could lead to complications such as vascular damage or thrombosis. D: Zero referencing and leveling the transducer at the phlebostatic axis are important steps but not directly related to performing an initial PAOP measurement.
Question 4 of 9
While caring for a patient with a small bowel obstruction, the nurse assesses a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 1 mm Hg and hourly urine output of 5 mL. The nurse anticipates which therapeutic intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intravenous fluids. In the scenario of a small bowel obstruction, a PAOP of 1 mm Hg indicates hypovolemia requiring fluid resuscitation to improve cardiac output and tissue perfusion. The low urine output suggests inadequate renal perfusion, further supporting the need for fluids. Diuretics (choice A) would worsen the hypovolemia. Negative inotropic agents (choice C) decrease cardiac contractility, which is not indicated in this scenario. Vasopressors (choice D) are used for hypotension, not for hypovolemia. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to address the hypovolemia and improve tissue perfusion.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse understands that a patient being cared for in a critical care unit experiences anacute stress response. What nursing action best demonstrates understanding of the physiological parts of the initial stress response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment for elevated blood pressure. In the initial stress response, the body releases adrenaline and cortisol, leading to increased heart rate and blood pressure. Treating elevated blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications like heart attack or stroke. Adequate pain control (A) and intravenous sedation (B) may help manage symptoms but do not directly address the physiological response to stress. Ignoring an elevated glucose level (D) is not recommended as stress can impact blood sugar levels. Treatment for elevated blood pressure directly targets the physiological response to stress, making it the best nursing action in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a normal serum creatinine level. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys are not able to filter waste products effectively, leading to an increase in serum creatinine levels. This is a common indicator of renal dysfunction. A: An increased GFR would not be expected in renal insufficiency, as it signifies improved kidney function. C: Increased ability to excrete drugs is not a typical finding in renal insufficiency, as impaired kidney function can lead to drug accumulation. D: Hypokalemia is not directly related to renal insufficiency. It is more commonly associated with factors like diuretic use or gastrointestinal losses.
Question 7 of 9
A patient in the ICU is complaining that he is not sleeping well at night because of anxiety. Which of the following would be the most helpful intervention for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C: Providing the patient with 5 minutes of effleurage (gentle massage) and minimizing disruptions is the most helpful intervention. Effleurage can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, improving sleep quality. Minimizing disruptions creates a conducive environment for sleep. A: Providing a bath after REM sleep may disrupt the patient's sleep cycle, worsening anxiety. B: Increasing pain medication may not address the root cause of anxiety and could lead to dependency or side effects. D: Monitoring brain waves with polysomnography is an invasive procedure not typically indicated for managing anxiety-related sleep issues.
Question 8 of 9
What were identified as the first critical care units? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Burn units. Burn units were identified as the first critical care units due to the complex and intensive care required by burn patients. These units were established to provide specialized care for burn victims, including wound management, infection control, and fluid resuscitation. Summary: - Burn units were the first critical care units due to the specialized care needed for burn patients. - Coronary care units focus on cardiac conditions, not the first identified critical care units. - Recovery rooms are for post-operative care, not specifically for critical care. - Neonatal intensive care units are specialized for newborns, not the first critical care units.
Question 9 of 9
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because evaluating the patient's serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure is crucial in detecting contrast-induced kidney injury. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function due to the contrast dye. This monitoring allows for early detection and intervention to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A is incorrect because a decrease in urine output is a late sign of kidney injury and may not be present in the early stages. Choice C is incorrect as a renal ultrasound is not typically used to detect contrast-induced kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect as postvoid residual volume assessment is not specific to detecting intrarenal injury related to contrast dye use.