ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child is receiving maintenance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the IV fluids for a 19.5 kg child: 1. For the first 10 kg: 1000 mL 2. For the weight between 10-20 kg: (19.5 kg - 10 kg) * 50 mL/kg = 475 mL Total IV fluids = 1000 mL + 475 mL = 1475 mL To convert to mL per hour: 1475 mL / 24 hours = ~61 mL/hr Therefore, the correct answer is B (61 mL/hr). Incorrect Choices: A (24 mL/hr): Incorrect, as it doesn't consider the additional fluids for the weight between 10-20 kg. C (73 mL/hr) and D (58 mL/hr): Incorrect, as these values are not obtained from the correct calculation based on the given formula.
Question 2 of 9
Which action is best for the nurse to take to ensure culturally competent care for an alert, terminally ill Filipino patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it promotes patient-centered care by involving the patient and family in decision-making, respecting their autonomy and preferences. This approach acknowledges the importance of cultural beliefs and values in end-of-life care. Choice B undermines patient autonomy by bypassing direct communication with the patient. Choice C assumes all Filipino individuals have the same cultural needs, which is not accurate. Choice D generalizes preferences without considering individual patient needs and wishes. Overall, choice A is the most appropriate as it aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and cultural competence.
Question 3 of 9
When performing an initial pulmonary artery occlusion pr essure (PAOP), what are the best nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. This is because inflating the balloon within this time frame allows for accurate measurement of PAOP without causing complications like pulmonary edema. Noting the waveform change helps in determining the accurate pressure reading. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: Inflating the balloon with air and recording the volume necessary is not a recommended practice as it can lead to inaccurate readings and potential harm to the patient. C: Maintaining the balloon inflated for 8 hours following insertion is unnecessary and could lead to complications such as vascular damage or thrombosis. D: Zero referencing and leveling the transducer at the phlebostatic axis are important steps but not directly related to performing an initial PAOP measurement.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement is consistent with societal views of dying in the United States?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D because the purpose of the healthcare system in the United States is primarily focused on disease prevention and symptom management. This aligns with societal views as healthcare is geared towards improving health outcomes and quality of life. Incorrect choices: A: Dying is not viewed as a failure of the system or providers, rather as a natural part of life. B: Most Americans prefer to die at home or in hospice care rather than in a hospital. C: Illnesses are not always curable, and death can result from various complex conditions beyond treatment.
Question 5 of 9
Which patient should the nurse notify the organ procureme nt organization (OPO) to evaluate for possible organ donation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the patient is a 36-year-old with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 and no activity on electroencephalogram, indicating severe brain injury and likely irreversible neurological damage. This patient meets the criteria for potential organ donation as they are neurologically devastated. Choice B is incorrect because the patient's condition is related to stroke and atrial fibrillation, not severe brain injury that would make them a candidate for organ donation. Choice C is incorrect because although the patient has a brain injury and a lower Glasgow Coma Scale score, the history of a reversible cause (ovarian cancer metastasis) and a higher GCS score compared to choice A make this patient less suitable for organ donation evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as the patient's diabetic and cardiovascular history does not suggest severe brain injury that would qualify for organ donation.
Question 6 of 9
Which therapeutic interventions may be withdrawn or withabhirebl.dco mfr/otemst the terminally ill client? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dialysis. In the context of terminally ill clients, withdrawing dialysis is appropriate as it can be burdensome without providing significant benefit towards the end of life. Dialysis does not cure terminal conditions and can prolong suffering unnecessarily. Antibiotics (A) may be necessary for managing infections in terminally ill clients. Nutrition (C) is important for comfort and quality of life. Pain medications (D) are essential for managing pain and should not be withdrawn unless no longer beneficial or requested by the patient.
Question 7 of 9
What factors are common to both pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cyclical exacerbation of one another. Pain and anxiety can intensify each other in a cyclical manner. Pain can trigger anxiety, making the pain feel worse, and anxiety can heighten pain perception. This relationship is well-documented in research and clinical practice. Choice B is incorrect because although both pain and anxiety benefit from thorough nursing assessment, it is not a factor common to both conditions. Choice C is incorrect as both pain and anxiety can be influenced by real and perceived phenomena, not solely real phenomena. Choice D is incorrect because while previous experiences can impact pain and anxiety perception, it is not a factor common to both conditions.
Question 8 of 9
A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. In this scenario, the client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the normal range for a client taking atenolol after a myocardial infarction. Therefore, the nurse should proceed with administering the medication as prescribed to help maintain the client's heart rate and blood pressure within the therapeutic range. A: Measuring the blood pressure is important but not the immediate next step as the client's heart rate is within the normal range. B: Reassessing the apical pulse is unnecessary since it is already within the normal range for a client on atenolol. C: Notifying the healthcare provider is not indicated as there are no signs of concern with the client's heart rate at 65 bpm.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus as a blood clot can dislodge from the veins, travel to the lungs, and block blood flow. An amniotic fluid embolus (Choice A) occurs during childbirth and is rare as a cause of pulmonary embolism. A fat embolus (Choice C) typically occurs after a long bone fracture and is more likely to cause issues in the lungs. Vegetation from an infected central venous catheter (Choice D) can cause septic pulmonary embolism, but it is not as common as DVT.