ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice B Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child is experiencing absence seizures that interrupt his ability to pay attention during school and activities. Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ethosuximide treats absence seizures by blocking T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, reducing 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges that disrupt attention, ideal for school-aged children. Carbamazepine, a sodium channel blocker, controls focal and tonic-clonic seizures but worsens absence seizures. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not chronic absence. Carbamazepine plus primidone targets other seizure types, not absence. Watchful waiting risks educational impact. Ethosuximide's specificity, efficacy, and pediatric safety make it the most appropriate, per guidelines.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is ordered furosemide (Lasix). Before administering furosemide, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for allergies to which drug class?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) belongs to the sulfonamide drug class. Patients with allergies to sulfonamides may experience cross-reactivity and have an increased risk of allergic reactions to furosemide. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the patient for any allergies to sulfonamides before administering furosemide to prevent potential adverse reactions.
Question 3 of 9
A 33-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The patient had a sudden onset of fever and her temperature is now 40°C (104°F). She has no sick contacts. The mother mentions that she is on a medication for schizophrenia but could not remember the name. A complete blood count shows 250 neutrophils per microliter. Which of the following medications is she likely taking?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fever and severe neutropenia (250 neutrophils/μL) in a schizophrenic patient suggest clozapine . Clozapine causes agranulocytosis, a rare but serious side effect requiring monitoring. Olanzapine , Quetiapine , Risperidone , and Haloperidol (E) rarely cause this. Clozapine's risk explains the acute presentation, necessitating immediate cessation.
Question 4 of 9
This drug when taken orally reverses the hepatic necrosis effect of paracetamol :
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to hepatic necrosis, and acetylcysteine is effective in preventing or reversing this hepatotoxicity. It works by replenishing depleted hepatic stores of glutathione, which is essential for detoxifying the reactive metabolite of acetaminophen. This helps to protect the liver cells from damage caused by the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen. Naloxone, vitamin K, warfarin, and diphenhydramine are not effective in reversing the hepatic necrosis caused by paracetamol overdose.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral drugs face first-pass metabolism in the liver, reducing bioavailability, so higher doses are needed for therapeutic effect compared to IV (100% bioavailability), sublingual (bypasses liver), or rectal (partial bypass). Oral route's loss to metabolism drives dosage needs, a pharmacokinetic distinction.
Question 6 of 9
The drug that will most likely be used for treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED) is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, enhances penile blood flow by increasing cyclic GMP, directly treating erectile dysfunction (ED) and is the standard first-line therapy. Leuprolide, a GnRH agonist, suppresses testosterone for prostate cancer, potentially worsening ED. Finasteride, for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), reduces prostate size but may cause ED as a side effect, not treat it. Tamsulosin, an alpha-blocker for BPH, improves urinary flow but isn't indicated for ED and can lower blood pressure. Sildenafil's targeted action on vascular mechanisms in ED distinguishes it, offering rapid efficacy and a well-established safety profile for this condition.
Question 7 of 9
The patient tells the nurse he worries about everything all day, feels confused, restless, and just can't stop worrying. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Persistent worry, confusion, and restlessness suggest generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)-relaxation techniques (e.g., breathing) help manage, a practical response. Social anxiety ties to specific triggers, not all-day worry. PTSD needs trauma history, not indicated. Panic disorder features acute attacks, not constant worry. GAD diagnosis with techniques fits symptoms, per psychiatry.
Question 8 of 9
A child is experiencing absence seizures that interrupt his ability to pay attention during school and activities. Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ethosuximide treats absence seizures by blocking T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, reducing 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges that disrupt attention, ideal for school-aged children. Carbamazepine, a sodium channel blocker, controls focal and tonic-clonic seizures but worsens absence seizures. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not chronic absence. Carbamazepine plus primidone targets other seizure types, not absence. Watchful waiting risks educational impact. Ethosuximide's specificity, efficacy, and pediatric safety make it the most appropriate, per guidelines.
Question 9 of 9
Oral decongestants differ from intranasal decongestants in that oral decongestants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral decongestants (e.g., pseudoephedrine) act systemically, vasoconstricting vessels beyond the nose, causing effects like hypertension , unlike intranasal decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline), which are localized but risk rebound congestion. Oral efficacy isn't inherently superior; it's slower. Rebound is nasal-specific. High efficacy is vague. Choice B highlights systemic impact, a key distinction nurses must recognize for safe administration.