ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a group of patients.Which patient will the nurse seefirst?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an older patient with glaucoma is at risk for increased intraocular pressure when receiving an enema. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications like vision loss. The other choices do not pose immediate risks that require urgent intervention. A and B can wait for a brief period, while D is not time-sensitive in the context of a myocardial infarction. The priority is always given to the patient with the highest risk of harm if the intervention is delayed.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a group of patients. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because measuring capillary blood glucose level is a task that can be safely delegated to nursing assistive personnel. This task is within their scope of practice and does not require specialized nursing knowledge. Nursing assistive personnel can perform this task accurately with proper training and supervision. Incorrect choices: B: Measuring nasoenteric tube for insertion requires specialized training and assessment skills that nursing assistive personnel may not possess. C: Measuring pH in gastrointestinal aspirate involves interpretation and clinical judgment that should be done by a licensed nurse. D: Measuring the patient's risk for aspiration involves critical thinking and assessment skills that are beyond the scope of nursing assistive personnel.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet. Patients with Huntington disease often experience difficulty swallowing and may have involuntary movements, leading to weight loss. A low-protein diet can help manage these symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. This diet can also help control the chorea movements associated with the disease. Choice A is incorrect as patients with Huntington disease often have reduced appetite due to swallowing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect as enzyme supplements are not typically indicated in the management of Huntington disease. Choice C is incorrect as a clear liquid diet is not suitable for meeting the nutritional needs of a patient with Huntington disease, who may already be at risk for malnutrition.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. This is the most appropriate action because the patient is exhibiting symptoms that could be indicative of a potentially infectious respiratory condition, such as tuberculosis or pneumonia. Placing the patient on respiratory isolation helps prevent the spread of infection to others and protects healthcare workers. Informing the physician promptly allows for further evaluation and appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect as Kaposi's sarcoma typically presents with skin lesions rather than respiratory symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as reviewing viral load and CD4+ count would not address the immediate concern of respiratory symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as oral suctioning is not the appropriate intervention for night sweats and coughing up blood.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Don't blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks." After mastoid surgery, blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and disrupt healing. Here's the rationale: 1. Blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and lead to complications. 2. Avoiding blowing the nose helps prevent infection and reduces the risk of damaging the surgical site. 3. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote proper healing and reduce the chances of postoperative complications. In summary, the other choices are incorrect because inducing a sneeze, exercising, and avoiding side-lying position do not directly relate to the specific care needs after mastoid surgery.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.