ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is using core measures to reduce healthdisparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause themost improvement in core measures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Poor people. Focusing on poor people is likely to cause the most improvement in core measures because individuals living in poverty often face multiple barriers to accessing healthcare and have higher rates of chronic conditions. By targeting this group, the nurse can address social determinants of health, improve healthcare access, and address disparities in healthcare outcomes. Other choices (A, C, D) are not as impactful as poverty is a significant factor influencing health disparities.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet. Patients with Huntington disease often experience difficulty swallowing and may have involuntary movements, leading to weight loss. A low-protein diet can help manage these symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. This diet can also help control the chorea movements associated with the disease. Choice A is incorrect as patients with Huntington disease often have reduced appetite due to swallowing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect as enzyme supplements are not typically indicated in the management of Huntington disease. Choice C is incorrect as a clear liquid diet is not suitable for meeting the nutritional needs of a patient with Huntington disease, who may already be at risk for malnutrition.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because treatment for HSV2 focuses on relieving symptoms since the virus cannot be cured. Antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks and reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms. Option A is incorrect as HSV2 typically presents as genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips (usually caused by HSV1). Option B is incorrect since antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Option C is incorrect as HSV2 is most contagious during active outbreaks, making it important to practice safe sex to prevent transmission.
Question 6 of 9
The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucosuria. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. Glucosuria is not a typical symptom of preeclampsia. Glucosuria is more commonly associated with gestational diabetes, which is a separate condition from preeclampsia. Therefore, in a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia, the presence of glucosuria would not be indicative of preeclampsia. The other choices, edema, proteinuria, and hypertension, are all common clinical signs seen in patients with preeclampsia.
Question 7 of 9
A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.
Question 9 of 9
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors. Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer. Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.