ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.
Question 2 of 9
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors. Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer. Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse wants to find the daily weights of apatient. Which form will the nurse use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Graphic record and flow sheet. The nurse will use a graphic record and flow sheet to document the patient's daily weights. This form allows for easy tracking and visualization of weight trends over time. Database (A) is used for storing large amounts of data but not ideal for daily weight tracking. Progress notes (B) are for narrative descriptions of patient care, not specific for daily weights. Patient care summary (C) provides an overview of the patient's care plan, not detailed daily weights.
Question 4 of 9
A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sentinel node biopsy. This procedure involves identifying and removing the sentinel lymph node(s) which is the first lymph node(s) that cancer cells are likely to spread to from the primary tumor. This method helps determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site without the need for a full axillary lymph node dissection. It is less invasive, has fewer side effects, and provides accurate staging information. Lymphadenectomy (A) refers to the removal of multiple lymph nodes, which is more extensive than necessary in this case. Needle biopsy (B) and open biopsy (C) are not specific to lymph node evaluation and do not provide accurate staging information for breast cancer.
Question 5 of 9
A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. After a vasectomy, the vas deferens, the tube that carries sperm from the testicles, is cut or blocked. This prevents sperm from being ejaculated, but the seminal fluid produced by the prostate and other glands still makes up the majority of the ejaculate volume. Therefore, although the ejaculate does not contain sperm after a vasectomy, there is no significant change in the amount of fluid ejaculated. Choice A is incorrect because the absence of sperm does not impact the volume of ejaculate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no marked decrease in ejaculate volume. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that the viscosity of ejaculate changes post-vasectomy.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. After undergoing a wide excision of the vulva, the patient is likely to experience significant pain. Scheduled analgesia ensures that the patient receives pain relief consistently, preventing pain from becoming severe. This approach helps to maintain a therapeutic level of pain control and improves patient comfort and satisfaction. Choice A is incorrect because withholding analgesia until the pain becomes unbearable can lead to unnecessary suffering and poor pain management. Choice C is incorrect as PRN dosing may result in inadequate pain relief and fluctuations in pain control. Choice D is incorrect as opioids are often necessary for postoperative pain management, and NSAIDs alone may not provide sufficient relief for the level of pain associated with a wide excision surgery.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 8 of 9
Which data found on a patient’s health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.