ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child goes to the school nurse and complains of not being able to hear the teacher. What test could the school nurse perform that would preliminarily indicate hearing loss?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Whisper test. The nurse can perform a whisper test by whispering a series of numbers or words at a distance from the child to see if they can repeat them accurately. If the child struggles to hear and repeat the whispered words, it could indicate hearing loss. Rationale: A: Audiometry is a comprehensive hearing test that measures the range and sensitivity of hearing, not suitable for a quick preliminary assessment. B: Rinne test and D: Weber test are both tuning fork tests used to assess conductive and sensorineural hearing loss, not ideal for a quick initial screening of hearing loss. Summary: The Whisper test is the most suitable choice as it provides a quick and simple way to preliminarily assess hearing loss by evaluating the child's ability to hear and repeat whispered sounds accurately.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. During anaphylaxis, the body releases chemicals that stimulate the production and activation of eosinophils, leading to an increase in their count. This helps in the identification of an allergic reaction. Incorrect Choices: B: Increased neutrophils - Neutrophils are not specific to allergic reactions and are typically increased in bacterial infections. C: Increased serum albumin - Serum albumin levels are not directly affected by allergic reactions. D: Decreased blood glucose - Hypoglycemia is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing the health care disparitiesamong population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accessibility of health care services. The nurse is monitoring disparities in access to healthcare services among different population groups. This is important as it can influence health outcomes and the prevalence of complications. Outcomes of health conditions (B) are impacted by access to care. Prevalence of complications (C) and incidence of diseases (D) can also be influenced by disparities in accessing healthcare services. However, the primary focus of the nurse's assessment in this scenario is on the accessibility of healthcare services as a key factor contributing to health care disparities.
Question 4 of 9
A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patients blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report to the emergency department or employee health department. 1. Immediate action is crucial after exposure to HIV-positive blood. 2. Reporting to the emergency department or employee health department ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate management. 3. The supervisor should also be informed to initiate the necessary protocols. 4. The other choices are incorrect: - A: Chlorhexidine may not be sufficient for post-exposure prophylaxis. - C: Hydrocolloid dressing is not appropriate for managing needlestick injuries. - D: Following up with the primary care provider may cause delays in receiving timely post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 5 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teaching patients to wear sunscreen, which is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs by addressing risk factors. In this case, teaching patients to wear sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer by reducing exposure to harmful UV rays. Yearly Pap tests (A) are a secondary prevention measure for cervical cancer, detecting precancerous changes. Testicular self-examination (B) is a form of secondary prevention for testicular cancer, aiming to detect any abnormalities early. Screening mammograms (D) are also a secondary prevention measure for breast cancer, detecting tumors at an early stage.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a diagnosis of vertigo. What nursing diagnosis risk should the nurse prioritize in this patients care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for falls. Patients with vertigo experience a false sensation of spinning or movement, which can lead to imbalance and increased risk of falls. Prioritizing the risk for falls is crucial to prevent injuries and ensure patient safety. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the immediate safety concern of falls associated with vertigo. A: Risk for disturbed sensory perception may be present, but the priority is preventing falls. B: Risk for unilateral neglect is not typically associated with vertigo. D: Risk for ineffective health maintenance is important but falls take precedence due to the immediate risk of injury.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Which factor is most importaNnt iRn diIminGishiBng. mCateMrnal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a U S N T O pregnant patient with diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy. Proper glycemic control is crucial in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes. Uncontrolled blood sugar levels can lead to maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications. Monitoring and maintaining stable blood glucose levels before and during pregnancy help reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. A: Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist - Although important for overall health, retinopathy does not directly impact maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in diabetes during pregnancy. B: The patient’s stable emotional and psychological status - While emotional and psychological well-being are important, they do not directly affect complications related to diabetes in pregnancy. D: Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits - While these are indicators of kidney function, they are not the most crucial factors in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes.
Question 9 of 9
In providing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Saturated fat should be limited to less than 7% of total calories. This is because limiting saturated fat intake is crucial in managing type 1 diabetes to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Saturated fats can worsen insulin resistance and lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as diabetic management involves more than just insulin. Choice C is incorrect because nonnutritive sweeteners should be used in moderation due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with diabetes should aim to keep cholesterol intake low to prevent heart problems.