ATI RN
Free Medical Surgical Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A cheerful, elderly widow comes to the community clinic for her annual check-up. She is in reasonably good health, but she has a hearing loss of 40 dB. She confides, 'I don't get out much. I used to be really active, but the older I get, the more trouble I have hearing. It can be really embarrassing.' What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario is option A) Social Interaction, Impaired related to perceived inability to interact. This is the correct answer because the patient's primary concern is her hearing loss impacting her ability to engage in social interactions, leading to feelings of embarrassment and isolation. Addressing this issue is crucial to improving her quality of life and mental well-being. Option B) Disturbed Sensory Perception related to progressive hearing loss is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this case because the patient's main distress is not solely related to the physical aspect of hearing loss but rather the social and emotional consequences of it. Option C) Knowledge Deficit related to pathophysiological processes is not the priority nursing diagnosis as the patient's main issue is not lack of understanding about her condition but rather the psychosocial impact of her hearing loss. Option D) Coping, Ineffective related to change in sensory abilities is not the priority nursing diagnosis because while coping mechanisms are important, the patient's most pressing concern is her impaired social interactions due to her hearing loss. In an educational context, it is essential for nurses to prioritize nursing diagnoses based on the patient's immediate needs and concerns. Understanding the psychosocial implications of a health condition is vital in providing holistic care and addressing the patient's overall well-being. In this case, focusing on improving the patient's social interactions and reducing feelings of embarrassment and isolation will have a significant impact on her quality of life.
Question 2 of 5
Your patient is a 25-year-old woman just diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. You would expect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole, the correct expectation would be A) A positive hCG. This is because a hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease characterized by abnormal growth of trophoblastic cells, leading to elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Option B) Weight loss and wasting as with other malignancies is incorrect because hydatidiform mole is not a malignancy but a benign gestational trophoblastic disease. Option C) Braxton-Hicks contractions are false labor contractions and are not associated with hydatidiform mole. Option D) A cough is unrelated to the diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. Educationally, understanding the expected clinical manifestations of hydatidiform mole is crucial for healthcare providers in providing appropriate care and monitoring for complications. Knowledge of hCG levels as a key diagnostic feature helps in prompt recognition and management of this condition.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count: 82,000/µL. A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) is a serious side effect of heparin therapy, as it can lead to bleeding complications. Platelets are essential for normal blood clotting. Hemoglobin, RBC count, and WBC count are not directly affected by heparin therapy and do not indicate a serious side effect.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it includes a lean protein (baked chicken breast) and high-fiber vegetables (broccoli, tomatoes) which are beneficial for managing elevated lipid levels. Lean protein helps reduce saturated fat intake while fiber from vegetables aids in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice A includes a high-saturated fat steak and French fries, not ideal for managing lipid levels. Choice C contains fried catfish and cornbread which are high in unhealthy fats and refined carbohydrates. Choice D has spaghetti with meat sauce and garlic bread, which are high in refined carbohydrates and saturated fats, not recommended for someone with elevated lipid levels.
Question 5 of 5
A client takes atorvastatin (Lipitor), with laboratory results showing a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask if the client eats grapefruit. Atorvastatin can interact with grapefruit juice, leading to increased drug levels and potential toxicity. The elevated BUN and creatinine levels suggest possible kidney impairment, which could be exacerbated by the drug interaction. Assessing for grapefruit consumption allows the nurse to address this potential risk factor. B: Assessing for dehydration would not directly address the potential drug interaction with grapefruit. C: Hospital admission is not necessary based solely on the information provided; this would be an extreme action without further assessment. D: Obtaining a random urinalysis would not provide relevant information related to the potential drug interaction with grapefruit.