A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Emailing client information through an unencrypted server is a HIPAA violation because it can lead to data breaches. Choices A, B, and C do not violate HIPAA. Posting the name of the nurse providing care on a client's communication board does not disclose sensitive health information. Discussing the client's new medication with a hospital pharmacist is a routine healthcare practice. Faxing requested medical information for a client who is transferring to another facility is a secure way to transmit healthcare data.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when discontinuing a client's indwelling urinary catheter is to measure and document the urine in the drainage bag. This step is essential to assess the client's urinary output and bladder function before removing the catheter. Removing the tape securing the catheter (Choice B) or positioning the client supine (Choice C) should come after measuring and documenting the urine output. Deflating the catheter balloon (Choice D) is the last step in the process of removing the catheter.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to prevent seizures and manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging physical activity may not be safe during acute withdrawal as the client may be at risk for seizures and other complications. Monitoring for signs of dehydration is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in acute alcohol withdrawal. While encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is beneficial for therapeutic communication, it is not the priority intervention when managing acute alcohol withdrawal.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to remove a behind-the-ear hearing aid before showering to prevent water damage. Choice A is incorrect because it is safe to wear the hearing aid while sleeping as it does not pose a risk of damage. Choice C is incorrect because it is advisable to remove the hearing aid during certain activities to prevent damage or loss. Choice D is incorrect as hearing aids do not need to be replaced weekly unless there is an issue with the device.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the priority action is to call for emergency assistance immediately. This ensures that the patient receives prompt and appropriate care, including interventions such as administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, and monitoring cardiac rhythm. Administering nitroglycerin should only be done if prescribed by a healthcare provider after assessment and confirmation of AMI. Monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm is important but not the initial action needed in this critical situation. Administering oxygen and preparing for an ECG are important interventions but should follow the immediate step of calling for emergency assistance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the patient's identity before administration is a critical step to ensure that the correct blood product is given to the right patient, thereby preventing transfusion errors. While ensuring proper documentation of the transfusion (choice A) is important for record-keeping, verifying patient identity (choice B) directly addresses the risk of administering blood to the wrong patient. Monitoring for allergic reactions or transfusion reactions (choice C) and monitoring the patient's vital signs during transfusion (choice D) are also essential considerations during blood product administration, but verifying patient identity takes precedence to prevent potentially life-threatening errors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.