Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg and share the same genetic material. This results in them always being of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not solely determined by genetics. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins will have the same blood group since they share the same DNA. Choice D is incorrect because superfetation, the fertilization of multiple eggs at different times during the same pregnancy, is not common in monozygotic twins.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention. A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments. C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern. D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg and share the same genetic material. This results in them always being of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not solely determined by genetics. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins will have the same blood group since they share the same DNA. Choice D is incorrect because superfetation, the fertilization of multiple eggs at different times during the same pregnancy, is not common in monozygotic twins.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Splenectomy. In this case, the patient presents with signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) with low platelet count and bleeding time prolongation. Splenectomy is the definitive treatment for ITP as the spleen is the site of platelet destruction. Avoiding elective surgery and medications (choice A) may be necessary to prevent bleeding complications but do not address the underlying issue. Prednisone (choice B) is used for acute treatment but not for long-term management. Monoclonal antibody therapy (choice C) is an option for refractory cases but not first-line therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.