A brain abscess is a collection of pus within the substance of the brain and is caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion can occur from trauma or surgery, while infections from other organs like the lungs or heart can travel through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites such as the sinuses or ears can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C alone do not encompass all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct comprehensive answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4, 5, 2006. Upon admission, a patient with allergies to bee stings may exhibit tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to an allergic reaction. Respiratory stridor (high-pitched wheezing) may occur as a sign of airway inflammation. Retinal hemorrhage and dyspnea (difficulty breathing) are not typically associated with bee sting allergies. Pallor and numbness/tingling are also not common symptoms in this scenario. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain his oral temperature. Seizure precautions typically include avoiding putting objects in the mouth to prevent injury during a seizure. Taking an oral temperature involves placing an object in the mouth, which could pose a risk if a seizure occurs. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindicated as they do not directly involve potential risks during a seizure. Allowing the patient to wear his own clothing, encouraging personal hygiene, and promoting mobility are safe practices that do not increase the risk of harm during a seizure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the drug should be resumed when the WBC count falls to 5,000mm3 to ensure the client's safety and efficacy of treatment. This criterion indicates that the client's immune system has recovered sufficiently to tolerate the drug. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the client's immune system recovery, which is crucial for drug tolerance. Choice B focuses on the rise in WBC count, not the fall to a specific level. Choice C is related to a cosmetic side effect, not clinical readiness. Choice D is unrelated to immune system recovery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database. This is incorrect because developing nursing diagnoses should be based on a comprehensive assessment and analysis of the patient's data. By developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database, the new nurse may overlook important information that could impact the accuracy of the diagnosis and subsequent care plan. Choice A (intravenous antibiotics) is incorrect because assigning a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection for a patient on IV antibiotics is a common and appropriate practice given the increased risk of infection associated with invasive procedures. Choice B (Completing an interview and physical examination before adding a nursing diagnosis) is incorrect because nursing diagnoses should be developed based on the data collected during the assessment process, which includes the interview and physical examination. It is not necessary to complete the entire assessment before assigning a nursing diagnosis. Choice D (Including cultural and religious preferences in the database) is incorrect because while it is important to consider cultural and religious preferences in care planning, this does not directly relate to the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Classic full-blown AIDS presents with tumors and opportunistic infections due to severe immune system suppression. Step 2: These manifestations occur when CD4 cell count drops significantly, leading to inability to fight infections. Step 3: Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (Choice A) can be seen in early HIV infection, not necessarily in full-blown AIDS. Step 4: Sudden weight loss, fever, and malaise (Choice B) are non-specific symptoms seen in various conditions, not specific to AIDS. Step 5: Fever, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea (Choice D) are common symptoms but lack the specificity of tumors and opportunistic infections seen in classic full-blown AIDS.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals may have age-related hearing loss, making it difficult for them to hear higher frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice can help ensure that the client can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Leaning and shouting at the ear of the client may come across as aggressive and disrespectful. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking is not necessary and may be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be too difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.