ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A brain abscess is a collection of pus within the substance of the brain and is caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion can occur from trauma or surgery, while infections from other organs like the lungs or heart can travel through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites such as the sinuses or ears can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C alone do not encompass all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct comprehensive answer.
Question 2 of 9
Another girl was bitten by a poisonous snake. All of the following are true except
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because exercising the bitten extremity can increase the spread of the venom. Choice B is correct as poisonous snake bites typically leave two fang marks. Choice C is correct as immediate severe pain and swelling are common symptoms of a poisonous snake bite. Choice D is incorrect as a tourniquet should not be used for snake bites as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage and increased risk of infection.
Question 3 of 9
A client with serum glucose level of 618mg/dl is admitted to the facility. He’s awake and oriented, has hot dry skin, and has the following vital signs: temperature of 100.6F (38.1C), heart rate of 116 beats/min, and blood pressure of 108/70mHg. Based on these assessment findings, which nursing diagnosis take highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration." The client's high serum glucose level of 618mg/dl indicates severe hyperglycemia, leading to dehydration. The client's hot, dry skin and elevated temperature can be signs of dehydration, impacting the body's ability to regulate temperature. Dehydration can also affect other vital signs, contributing to the elevated heart rate and low blood pressure. Addressing ineffective thermoregulation is crucial as it can lead to further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because addressing dehydration and ineffective thermoregulation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as heatstroke or hypothermia. Deficient volume, decreased cardiac output, and imbalanced nutrition are important but not as urgent in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has been teaching an adult who has iron deficiency anemia about those foods that she needs to include in her meal plans. Which of the following, if selected, would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the dietary instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables. Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables are good sources of Vitamin C and iron, which are essential for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron from plant-based sources, while green leafy vegetables provide iron. Bananas and nuts (choice B) are not significant sources of iron. Coffee and tea (choice C) can inhibit iron absorption. Dairy products (choice D) are not high in iron and can also inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choosing citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables indicates understanding of the dietary instructions for managing iron deficiency anemia.
Question 5 of 9
A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff conditions are more likely to develop in a client who is relatively immobile for the rest of his or her life? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder infection. Immobility can lead to urinary stasis, causing bacteria to multiply in the bladder, leading to a higher risk of bladder infections. B: Constipation can also occur due to immobility, but it is not directly related to the urinary system. C: Calculus formation is more related to factors like diet and hydration, not immobility. D: Bladder inflammation can be a result of infection but is not as directly linked to immobility as bladder infections.
Question 7 of 9
In a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, CD4+ levels are measured to determine the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are a type of white blood cell crucial for immune function. 2. HIV targets and destroys CD4+ cells, leading to immune system damage. 3. Measuring CD4+ levels helps determine the extent of this damage. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Summary: A: Presence of opportunistic infections - CD4+ levels indirectly affect susceptibility, but not measured for this purpose. C: Level of the viral load - Measured separately from CD4+ levels. D: Resistance to antigens - CD4+ levels do not directly indicate resistance.
Question 8 of 9
A baby is born temporarily immune to the diseases to which the mother is immune. The nurse understands that this is an example of which of the following types of immunity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naturally acquired passive immunity. This type of immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to baby through the placenta or breast milk, providing temporary protection. The baby does not produce its antibodies, hence it is passive. Choice B, naturally acquired active immunity, involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to a pathogen. Choice C, artificially acquired passive immunity, involves receiving preformed antibodies from an external source. Choice D, artificially acquired active immunity, involves the body producing antibodies in response to vaccination.
Question 9 of 9
A client with suspected lung cancer is scheduled for thoracentesis as part of the diagnostic workup. The nurse reviews the client’s history for conditions that might contraindicate this procedure. Which condition is a contraindication for thoracentesis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bleeding disorder. Thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove fluid. A bleeding disorder increases the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. This can lead to complications such as hematoma formation, pneumothorax, or even life-threatening bleeding. It is crucial to assess and address bleeding disorders before performing thoracentesis to ensure the safety of the client. A: A seizure disorder is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless uncontrolled seizures could compromise the safety of the procedure. B: Anemia alone is not a contraindication for thoracentesis, as it does not directly increase the risk of complications during the procedure. C: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless it is severe and compromises the client's ability to tolerate the procedure.