A boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is assigned to be of high risk group if he had got which of the following features?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Testicular involvement at diagnosis indicates high-risk ALL due to extramedullary spread.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: MRI provides superior detail for diagnosing intracranial lesions compared to CT or other modalities.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An abdominal mass is the most frequent presenting sign of neuroblastoma due to adrenal or paravertebral origin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Spinal cord compression is an oncologic emergency requiring urgent intervention in neuroblastoma.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, often in head/neck or GU sites.