A bloodborne training program for certain professions was established by and is required by

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microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A bloodborne training program for certain professions was established by and is required by

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: OSHA. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for setting and enforcing safety standards in the workplace, including bloodborne pathogen training requirements. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates training for certain at-risk professions to prevent exposure to bloodborne diseases. The CDC (Choice B) focuses on disease prevention and control, not regulatory enforcement. NIA (Choice C) is the National Institute on Aging and not relevant to bloodborne training. WHO (Choice D) is the World Health Organization, which sets global health standards but does not regulate workplace safety in the same capacity as OSHA.

Question 2 of 9

A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Amebic dysentery is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, not bacteria. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating this parasitic infection. It works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Mebendazole (B) is used to treat certain worm infections, not amebic dysentery. Itrakonazole (C) is an antifungal medication and not effective against parasites. Furacillin (D) is an antibacterial agent and not suitable for treating parasitic infections like amebic dysentery.

Question 3 of 9

A puncture sample has been taken from the inguinal lymph nodes of a patient provisionally diagnosed with plague. The sample was inoculated into a hard nutrient medium. What shape will the colonies have, if the diagnosis is confirmed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shagreen leather. Yersinia pestis, the bacterium causing plague, forms colonies resembling shagreen leather on a hard nutrient medium due to its distinctive morphology. This morphology includes a rough, irregular, and raised appearance, similar to the texture of shagreen leather. A: Dewdrops - Incorrect. Dewdrops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. C: Lace handkerchief - Incorrect. Lace handkerchief does not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. D: Mercury drops - Incorrect. Mercury drops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis.

Question 4 of 9

What are the structural units of nucleic acids?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: nucleotides. Nucleotides are the structural units of nucleic acids, consisting of a nitrogenous base, a sugar molecule, and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous base can be adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, or uracil. Histones (B) are proteins that DNA wraps around in chromosomes, not structural units of nucleic acids. Nucleosides (A) are composed of a nitrogenous base and a sugar molecule but lack the phosphate group present in nucleotides. N-bases (D) is not a recognized term in biology and does not accurately describe the structural units of nucleic acids.

Question 5 of 9

Healthcare–associated infections are also known as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: nosocomial infections. Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in healthcare settings. This term specifically refers to infections that occur during the course of receiving medical treatment. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Incidental infections do not necessarily occur in healthcare settings. B: Accidental infections is not a commonly used term in healthcare for infections acquired in healthcare settings. D: Secondary infections refer to infections that occur as a result of a primary infection, not specifically related to healthcare settings.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in high-salinity environments?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high-salinity environments due to their ability to tolerate high salt concentrations. They have adapted mechanisms to maintain osmotic balance and survive in such extreme conditions. Thermophiles (B) thrive in high-temperature environments, not high-salinity. Acidophiles (C) prefer acidic conditions, not high-salinity. Mesophiles (D) grow optimally at moderate temperatures and are not specifically adapted to high-salinity environments.

Question 7 of 9

... structure of bacteria are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cytoplasmic membrane - essential. The cytoplasmic membrane is a crucial structure in bacteria as it regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, provides structural support, and is essential for maintaining cell integrity. Without a functional cytoplasmic membrane, bacteria would not be able to survive. A: Nucleus is incorrect because bacteria do not have a true nucleus. B: Capsule - non-essential is incorrect because while the capsule provides protection and helps in adherence, it is not essential for bacterial survival. C: Mitochondria is incorrect because bacteria do not have mitochondria; they generate energy through other mechanisms. In summary, the cytoplasmic membrane is essential for bacterial survival, making it the correct choice among the options provided.

Question 8 of 9

The major morphological form of the bacteria are:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the major morphological forms of bacteria. Cocci are spherical, rod-shaped bacteria are called bacilli, and curved bacteria are spirilla. Staphylococci, streptococci, and diplococci are specific types of cocci, not major morphological forms. Basicili and spiralis are not common morphological forms of bacteria. Option D is incorrect as the other choices do represent major morphological forms of bacteria.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods: E. coli is a Gram-negative rod bacterium. 2. Fermented lactose: E. coli is known to ferment lactose. 3. Common cause of diarrhea: E. coli is a common causative agent of infectious diarrhea. Summary: B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with lactose fermentation. C: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not known for lactose fermentation. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of infectious diarrhea and does not typically ferment lactose.

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