A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. Salmonellosis is typically caused by Salmonella species, with Salmonella enteritidis being one of the common culprits. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not salmonellosis. Shigella flexneri is responsible for causing shigellosis, a different bacterial infection. Choosing "None of the above" is incorrect as Salmonella enteritidis is a known cause of salmonellosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B (Tuberculin is introduced) is correct: 1. Tuberculin test helps identify individuals with latent TB infection. 2. Negative skin-allergic samples suggest absence of active TB. 3. Introducing tuberculin can help confirm latent TB infection. 4. Antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. 5. Vaccines are not administered for TB diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. - Choice C is incorrect as vaccines are not used for TB diagnosis. - Choice D is incorrect as introducing tuberculin is the appropriate step in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell envelope structure consisting of a cytoplasmic membrane, a peptidoglycan layer, and an outer membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the innermost layer that separates the cytoplasm from the external environment. The peptidoglycan layer provides structural support to the cell. The outer membrane acts as an additional protective barrier and contains lipopolysaccharides. Choice B is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane in addition to the cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have more than just a peptidoglycan layer in their cell envelope. Choice D is incorrect as the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria does have specific components.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease. Summary: A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cytoplasmic membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the fluidlike portion of a cell that separates the cell's contents from the external environment. It regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintains cell shape, and provides protection. Rationale: 1. Cytosol (choice A) is the liquid component of the cytoplasm where organelles are suspended, not the fluidlike portion of the cell. 2. Nucleoplasm (choice B) refers to the liquid component of the nucleus, not the entire cell. 3. Inclusion (choice D) refers to non-living substances within the cell that are not considered the fluidlike portion. Summary: The cytoplasmic membrane is the correct answer as it encompasses the entire cell and is responsible for maintaining cell integrity and regulating transport. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the fluidlike portion of the cell.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria listed produce exotoxins that cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin causing botulism. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to cholera. Escherichia coli can produce various exotoxins causing different types of severe gastrointestinal illnesses like E. coli O157:H7 causing bloody diarrhea. Therefore, all choices A, B, and C are correct in this case as they all produce exotoxins causing severe gastrointestinal illness.