A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of these." Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum at one end, amphitrichous have flagella at both ends, and peritrichous have flagella distributed all over the surface. The answer D is correct because it includes all these possibilities based on flagella location. Monotrichous is incorrect as it only refers to a single flagellum, amphitrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella at both ends, and peritrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella all over the surface. Therefore, the correct answer encompasses all these options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Formic acid is produced during fermentation by Actinomyces. Step 2: Actinomyces are known to produce organic acids like formic acid through fermentation. Step 3: Other choices like Streptococcus, Klebsiella, and Clostridium are not typically associated with formic acid production. Step 4: Actinomyces is the most likely candidate based on its fermentation capabilities. Summary: Actinomyces is the correct answer because it is known to produce formic acid during fermentation, while the other choices lack this specific metabolic function.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell envelope structure consisting of a cytoplasmic membrane, a peptidoglycan layer, and an outer membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the innermost layer that separates the cytoplasm from the external environment. The peptidoglycan layer provides structural support to the cell. The outer membrane acts as an additional protective barrier and contains lipopolysaccharides. Choice B is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane in addition to the cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have more than just a peptidoglycan layer in their cell envelope. Choice D is incorrect as the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria does have specific components.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus known to cause bacterial meningitis, presenting with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. It is a common cause of meningitis in young adults and teenagers. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-positive bacteria and a common cause of bacterial pneumonia, not meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae (C) is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause meningitis, but it is less common in adults. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus known to cause pneumonia and urinary tract infections, not meningitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer choice D is correct: 1. Coronaviruses can cause reinfections due to potential waning immunity. 2. Studies have shown cases of reinfections with different strains or within a short period. 3. This contradicts the notion that reinfections cannot be observed. Summary: A: Incorrect because some coronaviruses can cause lower respiratory tract infections. B: Incorrect as coronaviruses can exhibit varied symptomatology including asymptomatic cases. C: Incorrect as some coronaviruses like SARS can lead to severe pneumonia and complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that infects the small intestine, leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes the symptoms of cholera. A: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. C: Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, not cholera. D: Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning but not cholera.