ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.
Question 2 of 5
Etiological cause of bacteremia could be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because bacteremia can be caused by a variety of bacteria including S.epidermidis, E.coli, S.aureus, P.aeruginosa, K.pneumoniae, and resident skin diphtheroids. Bacteremia refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, which can occur due to infections from various sources. Choices A and B include common bacteria known to cause bacteremia, while choice C refers to resident skin diphtheroids that can also enter the bloodstream under certain conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it encompasses all the possible etiological causes of bacteremia.
Question 3 of 5
The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection of these spores?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following viruses belongs to family Arenaviridae?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family. 4. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct answer because it is the only virus listed that belongs to the Arenaviridae family.
Question 5 of 5
During latency, HSV1 exists in what form:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During latency, HSV1 exists as episomes in neurons. This is because HSV1 establishes a lifelong latent infection in sensory neurons, where the viral genome remains as a circular episome in the nucleus. This form allows the virus to persist in a dormant state, avoiding detection by the immune system. Choice A is incorrect as HSV1 does not integrate into the host chromosome. Choice C is incorrect as latency is a well-documented phenomenon for HSV1. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is B.