A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of polypeptide. This is because the capsule is composed of a protein-based material that surrounds the bacterium, providing protection and aiding in its virulence. Polysaccharides, lipids, and the absence of capsules are not characteristic of Bacillus anthracis' capsule structure, making choices A, C, and D incorrect, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus known to cause bacterial meningitis, presenting with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. It is a common cause of meningitis in young adults and teenagers. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-positive bacteria and a common cause of bacterial pneumonia, not meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae (C) is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause meningitis, but it is less common in adults. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus known to cause pneumonia and urinary tract infections, not meningitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices can contribute to hospital-acquired infections. New patients in the incubation period can spread infections, medical staff can inadvertently transmit infections, and contaminated medical instruments can also be a source of infections. Therefore, it is important to consider all these factors to prevent and control the spread of infections in a hospital setting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: destruction of the local blood supply. In osteomyelitis, the infection occurs in the bone, which has a relatively poor blood supply compared to soft tissues. This limited blood flow makes it challenging for antibiotics to reach the infection site effectively, hindering their ability to combat the infection. Destruction of the local blood supply restricts the delivery of antibiotics and immune cells to the infected bone, leading to poor treatment outcomes. Summary: - Option A is correct because the limited blood supply in bones hinders antibiotic delivery. - Option B is incorrect as denaturing by normal flora does not impact antibiotic reach to the infection site. - Option C is incorrect as inflammation and edema, while present, do not primarily hinder antibiotic delivery. - Option D is incorrect as excessive pus production does not directly impede antibiotic access to the infection site.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: prions. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Prions are not viruses like flavoviruses (A) or orthomyxoviruses (D). Virusoids (B) are small, circular, single-stranded RNA molecules that require a helper virus to replicate and are not associated with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. Therefore, the correct answer is C as prions are the only choice that correctly links to the etiology of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.