A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

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Question 1 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.

Question 2 of 9

Unlike eukaryotic cytoplasm, the prokaryotic one is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Simpler. Prokaryotic cytoplasm is simpler than eukaryotic cytoplasm because prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles such as a nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum that are present in eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cytoplasm contains fewer components and structures compared to eukaryotic cytoplasm, making it less complex. Therefore, the prokaryotic cytoplasm is simpler in structure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because prokaryotic cytoplasm is not more complex than eukaryotic cytoplasm, there is a clear difference in structure between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cytoplasm, and the statement "None of the above" is not accurate as the correct answer is B.

Question 3 of 9

A large-scale reaction with parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums was made in order to make serological diagnostics of the whooping cough. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella parapertussis a granular sediment formed. What antibodies did this reaction reveal?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Precipitins. When a granular sediment forms at the bottom of the test-tubes, it indicates the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that are insoluble and precipitate out of the solution. Precipitins are antibodies that specifically react with antigens to form insoluble complexes. Agglutinins cause clumping of cells, opsonins enhance phagocytosis, and bacteriolysins lyse bacteria. These processes do not result in the formation of a granular sediment, making them incorrect choices in this context.

Question 4 of 9

What is the structure of bacterial flagella?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: protein filaments made of flagellin. Bacterial flagella are composed of flagellin proteins arranged in helical filaments. This structure allows for movement and propulsion of bacteria. A: 9+2 microtubule arrangement is incorrect because this structure is typically found in eukaryotic flagella, not bacterial flagella. C: Lipid bilayer is incorrect as it is a structural component of cell membranes, not bacterial flagella. D: Peptidoglycan layer is incorrect as it is a component of bacterial cell walls, not flagella.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with fever and sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains: characteristic of Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative: Streptococcus species are catalase-negative. 3. Beta-hemolytic: S. pyogenes is beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Therefore, S. pyogenes fits all these criteria. B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but alpha-hemolytic, not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative, but not typically beta-hemolytic or in chains. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not in chains.

Question 6 of 9

Salmonellosis is caused by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. Salmonellosis is typically caused by Salmonella species, with Salmonella enteritidis being one of the common culprits. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not salmonellosis. Shigella flexneri is responsible for causing shigellosis, a different bacterial infection. Choosing "None of the above" is incorrect as Salmonella enteritidis is a known cause of salmonellosis.

Question 7 of 9

Which bacteria are capable of producing endospores?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium belongs to the Clostridium genus, known for its ability to produce endospores. Endospores are dormant, resistant structures that help bacteria survive harsh conditions. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Escherichia coli (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium known for causing various infections, but it does not form endospores. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals, but it does not produce endospores. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, but it also does not form endospores.

Question 8 of 9

The virulence factors of bacteria include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because virulence factors of bacteria are characteristics that enable them to cause disease. Colonization allows bacteria to establish and multiply in the host. Invasion refers to the ability to penetrate host tissues. Toxins are substances produced by bacteria that harm the host. Adhesion is crucial for bacteria to attach to host cells. A: Size and mutation are not typical virulence factors. Resistance is not directly related to causing disease. C: While toxins and evasion of body defenses are correct, motility and size are not universally considered virulence factors. D: Chemotaxis and fermentation are not primary virulence factors, unlike colonization and toxins.

Question 9 of 9

A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules. What is the likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules matches the morphology of S. pneumoniae. This bacterium is known to cause pneumonia, especially in individuals with underlying conditions like COPD. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears in clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a cocci. Hence, based on the morphology and clinical context, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the likely microorganism causing pneumonia in this patient.

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