A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?

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Question 1 of 9

A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anterior uveitis. This condition presents with redness, pain, and photophobia due to inflammation of the uveal tract. Ciliary injection, corneal edema, and mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light are classic signs of anterior uveitis. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific findings: B: Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with a high intraocular pressure, not fixed dilated pupil. C: Endophthalmitis typically presents with severe pain, hypopyon, and vitreous inflammation. D: Corneal abrasion would not cause ciliary injection or fixed dilated pupil.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is preparing to assist with a lumbar epidural steroid injection (LESI) procedure for a patient with chronic back pain. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural accuracy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Confirming the patient's identity ensures the right patient is receiving the intended procedure. 2. Verifying the procedure site using two identifiers prevents errors in site selection. 3. This step aligns with the World Health Organization's Surgical Safety Checklist, reducing the risk of wrong-site procedures. 4. Positioning, sedation, and local anesthesia are important but secondary to ensuring the correct patient and site. Summary: - Option B: Positioning is essential but not the top priority for procedural accuracy. - Option C: Sedation aims to minimize discomfort but does not guarantee procedural accuracy. - Option D: Administering local anesthesia is crucial but not as critical as confirming patient identity and procedure site.

Question 4 of 9

While performing the admission assessment of a new client, the nurse observed that the client brought a bottle of over-the-counter pain medication to the hospital. The nurse failed to document this or remove the medication from the room. Subsequently, the client experienced a serious adverse drug reaction as a result of the interaction between this drug and one of the drugs that the client was prescribed in the hospital. This nurse may be guilty of what?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malpractice. The nurse's failure to document and remove the over-the-counter medication, which led to a serious adverse drug reaction, constitutes malpractice. Malpractice refers to negligence or failure to provide the standard of care expected in a professional setting. In this case, the nurse's actions directly resulted in harm to the client, which is a clear example of malpractice. Incorrect Choices: B: Failure of duty to warn - This choice implies that the nurse had a duty to warn the client about the potential drug interaction, which may not necessarily be the case. The primary issue here is the nurse's failure to document and remove the medication, not a failure to warn. C: Assault - Assault involves intentional harm or threat of harm, which is not applicable in this scenario where the harm was due to negligence. D: Incompetence - While the nurse's actions may demonstrate incompetence, the more specific legal term for this situation would be malpractice, as it directly

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following is the best predictor of adolescents attempting suicide?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Feeling of hopelessness. Adolescents who feel hopeless are at a higher risk of attempting suicide due to a lack of belief in positive outcomes. This feeling can lead to a sense of being trapped and unable to see a way out. Depressed mood (A) can contribute to suicide risk, but specifically feeling hopeless is a more direct predictor. Feeling of euphoria (B) and joyful mood (C) are actually less likely to be associated with suicide attempts, as they may temporarily mask underlying issues or provide a sense of distraction. Hopelessness is a key psychological factor that can lead to suicidal thoughts and behaviors in adolescents.

Question 7 of 9

Before admitting the client, you should FIRST make sure that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because obtaining the client's own consent is the first step in ensuring the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own care. This is in line with ethical principles of informed consent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consent should come directly from the client, not from a spouse, family member, or social worker. Choice B violates the principle of individual autonomy, choice C is not the priority before admission, and choice D is not the appropriate person to provide consent.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources such as toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abrasion. Abrasion is the wearing away of tooth structure due to friction from external sources like toothbrushing or abrasive toothpaste. Dental caries (A) refers to tooth decay caused by bacteria. Attrition (B) is the wearing down of tooth structure due to tooth-to-tooth contact. Erosion (D) is the loss of tooth structure from acid attacks, not friction. Therefore, option C is the most fitting choice based on the description given.

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