A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20-Gauge. The smaller the gauge number, the larger the diameter of the catheter. Blood transfusions typically require a larger catheter size to prevent hemolysis and ensure proper flow. A 20-Gauge catheter is larger than 22-Gauge, 18-Gauge, and 12-Gauge, making it suitable for administering blood. 22-Gauge is too small and can cause hemolysis, 18-Gauge is smaller than the recommended size for blood transfusions, and 12-Gauge is too large and can cause damage to the vein.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Central retinal artery occlusion. This condition presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, cherry-red spot at the macula due to lack of blood flow, and attenuated retinal vessels. The cherry-red spot is due to the transparency of the fovea when there is ischemia in the surrounding retina. Central retinal vein occlusion (B) presents with sudden vision loss accompanied by retinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins. Retinal detachment (C) typically presents with sudden flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like visual field defect. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (D) presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Justice. Nurse Erika is ensuring fairness by including all newly hired nurses in her project without discrimination. Justice in healthcare promotes equity and equal opportunities. Nonmaleficence (B) refers to the duty to do no harm, not relevant here. Autonomy (C) relates to respecting individuals' right to make decisions for themselves, not evident in the scenario. Respect (D) is important but not the primary ethical principle demonstrated here.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: advocacy. Advocacy involves actively supporting and promoting the welfare and rights of the patient. Nurses advocate for their patients by ensuring their health, safety, and personal rights are upheld. This ethical principle goes beyond just fulfilling responsibilities or being accountable for one's actions. Responsibility (A) focuses on duties and tasks, accountability (B) is about being answerable for one's actions, and confidentiality (C) pertains to maintaining patient privacy. In this context, advocacy is the most appropriate choice as it encompasses actively working to protect and promote the best interests of the patient.