Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is the MOST severe form of an allergic reaction, including latex allergy. It is a systemic, potentially life-threatening reaction that can involve multiple organ systems. Symptoms can include difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, a rapid drop in blood pressure, and cardiovascular collapse. Pruritus, erythema, and swelling (choice A) are common symptoms of allergic reactions but not specific to anaphylaxis. Asthma (choice B) can be a manifestation of latex allergy but is not the most severe form. Blisters and other skin lesions (choice D) are not typical of anaphylaxis but can occur in some cases of contact dermatitis from latex exposure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malpractice. The nurse's failure to document and remove the over-the-counter medication, which led to a serious adverse drug reaction, constitutes malpractice. Malpractice refers to negligence or failure to provide the standard of care expected in a professional setting. In this case, the nurse's actions directly resulted in harm to the client, which is a clear example of malpractice. Incorrect Choices: B: Failure of duty to warn - This choice implies that the nurse had a duty to warn the client about the potential drug interaction, which may not necessarily be the case. The primary issue here is the nurse's failure to document and remove the medication, not a failure to warn. C: Assault - Assault involves intentional harm or threat of harm, which is not applicable in this scenario where the harm was due to negligence. D: Incompetence - While the nurse's actions may demonstrate incompetence, the more specific legal term for this situation would be malpractice, as it directly

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transporting the patient to a medical facility for antivenom administration. This is recommended because antivenom is the definitive treatment for snakebites. Tourniquets (choice A) can worsen tissue damage and should be avoided. Elevating the limb (choice B) may not prevent venom spread. Making an incision (choice C) can lead to infection and increased venom absorption. Antivenom administration at a medical facility is crucial for proper management of snakebites.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Empiric antibiotic therapy directed against common pathogens. This is recommended for managing PID because it helps treat the infection and prevent complications. Antibiotics target the underlying bacterial infection causing PID. Surgical exploration (B) is not the initial treatment for PID. Hormonal therapy (C) is not indicated for PID management. Symptomatic treatment with NSAIDs (D) can help with pain but does not address the infection itself.