ATI RN
NCLEX Questions Pediatric Infectious Diseases Questions
Question 1 of 5
A bifid uvula suggests a
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A bifid uvula often indicates a submucosal cleft (B), a subtle palate anomaly, more directly than laryngomalacia (A), chromosomal issues (C), TEF (D), or neurologic defects (E).
Question 2 of 5
A 7-month-old infant presented with recurrent seizures; on examination there are hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis; skull film revealed intracerebral calcifications. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Seizures, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, and calcifications at 7 months suggest congenital toxoplasmosis (E), with classic triad (hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, calcifications), unlike others (A, B, C, D).
Question 3 of 5
A full-term infant presents with history of low birth weight, microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly, and chorioretinitis; investigations reveals thrombocytopenia and abnormal liver enzymes; skull films revealed intracranial calcifications. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly, chorioretinitis, and calcifications in a term infant suggest CMV (C), the most common congenital infection, over others (A, B, D, E).
Question 4 of 5
Infants who weigh less than 1500 g or who are born before 28 weeks' gestational age should be screened for retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) when they are
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ROP screening for <1500 g or <28 weeks infants occurs at 4 weeks or >34 weeks corrected age (B), per AAP guidelines, to catch early retinal changes.
Question 5 of 5
The treatment of neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonatal chlamydial conjunctivitis requires oral erythromycin (A) to treat ocular and potential systemic infection, per standard protocols.