A balanced anesthetic technique for production of

Question 1 of 5

A balanced anesthetic technique for production of general anesthesia may include which of the following drugs?

A. an inhalation anesthetic B. a narcotic C. a muscle relaxant D. all of these

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A balanced anesthetic technique for producing general anesthesia usually involves a combination of different types of drugs to achieve the desired level of unconsciousness, analgesia, muscle relaxation, and amnesia while minimizing adverse effects. The use of multiple drugs simultaneously allows for lower doses of each drug, reducing the risk of toxicity and adverse side effects. In a typical balanced anesthesia regimen, an inhalation anesthetic is used for the maintenance of anesthesia, a narcotic provides analgesia, a muscle relaxant is used to facilitate intubation and reduce muscle movements during surgery, and an IV barbiturate may be used as an induction agent to initiate anesthesia. Therefore, all of the options provided - an inhalation anesthetic, a narcotic, a muscle relaxant, and an IV barbiturate - are commonly included in a balanced anesthetic technique for producing general anesthesia.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is giving intravenous nitroglycerin to a patient who has just been admitted because of an acute myocardial infarction. Which statement is true regarding the administration of the intravenous form of this medication?

A. The solution will be slightly colored green or blu B. C. The intravenous form is given by bolus injection. D. It can be given in infusions with other medications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Intravenous nitroglycerin is commonly administered in infusions along with other medications, such as heparin and morphine, to manage acute myocardial infarction. By giving it in infusions, healthcare providers can control the dosage and titrate it to the patient's response while also minimizing the risk of sudden drops in blood pressure. Additionally, administering nitroglycerin in infusions allows for precise and continuous delivery of the medication to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

Question 3 of 5

With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:

A. prednisone is a long acting glucocorticoid B. methotrexate has been shown to be beneficial in prednisone-dependent asthmatics in all studies C. cyclosporin's toxicity limits its use as an oral anti-asthmatic agent D. oral nifedipine significantly inhibits exercise-induced bronchoconstriction

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is intermediate-acting (12-36 hours), not long-acting like dexamethasone, so that's false. Methotrexate benefits some prednisone-dependent asthmatics, not all studies, making that false. Cyclosporin's toxicity (e.g., nephrotoxicity) limits its anti-asthmatic use, a true statement, despite immunosuppressive potential. Nifedipine has minimal effect on exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, unlike inhaled CCBs, so that's false. Macrolides show some benefit in asthma. Cyclosporin's limitation reflects its risk-benefit profile, restricting its practical use.

Question 4 of 5

Samuel, a 65-year-old patient comes into the hospital for an anginal attack. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention when administering Nitroglycerine?

A. If the patient has more pain, apply another transdermal patch and keep the others on B. Don't wash the skin after removing a transdermal patch C. Remove the transdermal patch 10-12 hours every night to prevent tolerance D. Monitor blood pressure only after administration

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: It is important to remove the transdermal Nitroglycerine patch for 10-12 hours every night to prevent the development of tolerance. Tolerance can occur when the body becomes less responsive to the medication over time, reducing its effectiveness. By allowing a break in Nitroglycerine administration overnight, tolerance development can be minimized, ensuring the medication remains effective for the patient when needed. This nursing intervention helps to maintain the efficacy of Nitroglycerine in managing anginal attacks for the patient.

Question 5 of 5

The mother of a 7-year-old child says to the nurse, 'My child is distractible in school, cannot complete assignments on time, and interrupts other children while they are speaking. What do you think?' What is the best response by the nurse?

A. This sounds like your child is depressed; depression looks different in children and is very serious' B. This sounds like bipolar disorder; you might want to have your child tested by a child psychiatrist' C. This could be attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); you might want to have your child tested' D. This sounds like typical 7-year-old behaviors to me; if they do not resolve, have your child tested'

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Distractibility, incomplete tasks, and interrupting suggest ADHD-hyperactivity/impulsivity, per DSM-5-warranting evaluation. Depression may show withdrawal, not this. Bipolar needs mania evidence, not here. Typical 7-year-olds vary, but this exceeds norms. ADHD fits, prompting testing.