ATI RN
Pediatric GI Disorders Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 9-year-old white male presents with a 3-month history of epigastric abdominal pain that is intermittent, aching, and lasts for 10-15 minutes. Pain is also present at night. Stool examination for occult blood is positive. The most likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) peptic ulcer disease. In pediatric patients with epigastric abdominal pain, positive stool occult blood, and nighttime pain, peptic ulcer disease is the most likely diagnosis. Peptic ulcers can cause intermittent, aching pain that worsens at night and can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in positive occult blood in the stool. Option A, pancreatitis, typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, which are not described in this case. Option B, urinary tract infection, would not typically cause epigastric pain or positive stool occult blood. Option C, left lower lobe pneumonia, would present with respiratory symptoms like cough and fever, not consistent with the symptoms described. Educationally, understanding the clinical presentation of pediatric GI disorders is crucial for healthcare providers to make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. Recognizing the differences in symptoms between conditions like peptic ulcer disease and other common pediatric illnesses helps in effective clinical decision-making and management of pediatric patients with gastrointestinal complaints.
Question 2 of 5
Periodontitis is often associated with the following conditions EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Periodontitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the gums and damage to the surrounding structures of the teeth. In this case, option B, hypophosphatasia, is the correct answer as it is not typically associated with periodontitis. Leukocyte adhesion defects (Option A) can result in impaired immune response, making individuals more susceptible to periodontitis due to poor defense against bacteria in the gums. Leukemia (Option C) is a type of cancer that can affect the production of white blood cells, increasing the risk of infections like periodontitis. Vitamin D-resistant rickets (Option D) can lead to bone abnormalities, including changes in the structure of the jawbone, which can contribute to periodontal issues. In an educational context, understanding the associations between various medical conditions and periodontitis is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pediatric patients. Identifying these relationships can aid in early diagnosis, appropriate management, and prevention of complications related to periodontal disease in children. This knowledge is essential for pediatric dentists, pediatricians, and other healthcare providers who care for children with complex medical conditions.
Question 3 of 5
Acute diarrhea in infancy is commonly caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the case of acute diarrhea in infancy, the most common cause is overfeeding, making option B the correct answer. Overfeeding can overwhelm the infant's gastrointestinal system, leading to diarrhea as the body tries to rid itself of the excess nutrients. This scenario is common in infants who are fed too much formula or solid foods. Option A, primary disaccharidase deficiency, is less likely to be the cause of acute diarrhea in infancy. This condition involves the inability to break down certain sugars properly and usually presents with chronic diarrhea rather than sudden onset acute diarrhea. Hirschsprung disease, option C, is a congenital condition where nerve cells are missing in the colon, leading to severe constipation rather than acute diarrhea. Option D, adrenogenital syndrome, is a hormonal disorder that typically does not present with acute diarrhea in infancy. Educationally, understanding the common causes of acute diarrhea in infants is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. Proper feeding practices and recognizing symptoms can help prevent and manage episodes of diarrhea in infants effectively. This knowledge is essential for pediatric nurses, pediatricians, and other healthcare professionals caring for infants.
Question 4 of 5
Contrast (usually barium) radiographic study of the esophagus and upper gastrointestinal tract has poor sensitivity and specificity in the diagnosis of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric GI disorders, contrast radiographic studies play a crucial role in diagnosing various conditions. In this case, the correct answer is C) GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease). Contrast studies are less sensitive and specific for GERD because it primarily involves assessing the function of the lower esophageal sphincter and detecting esophageal acid exposure, which are better evaluated through pH monitoring and endoscopy. A) Achalasia is a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax. This condition is better diagnosed through manometry and endoscopy rather than contrast studies. B) Esophageal strictures are often visualized well on contrast studies, showing narrowing of the esophagus. However, the underlying cause of the stricture, such as inflammation, reflux, or external compression, may require additional tests like endoscopy for a definitive diagnosis. D) Gastric outlet obstruction involves a blockage that prevents the normal passage of stomach contents into the small intestine. While contrast studies can help identify the location and nature of the obstruction, other imaging modalities like ultrasound or CT scans may provide more detailed information. Educationally, understanding the limitations and strengths of diagnostic tools is essential for healthcare providers managing pediatric patients with GI disorders. It highlights the importance of selecting the most appropriate diagnostic tests based on the suspected condition to ensure accurate and timely diagnosis, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Oral and intravenous atropine sulfate (pyloric muscle relaxant) has been described when surgical treatment is not available for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis with a success rate of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine sulfate, a pyloric muscle relaxant, is used as a temporary measure in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis when surgical intervention is not immediately available. The success rate of oral and intravenous atropine sulfate in treating this condition is around 60%. This success is attributed to the ability of atropine to inhibit acetylcholine receptors, which helps in relaxing the hypertrophied pyloric muscle and improving gastric outlet obstruction. Option A (20%) is incorrect because a success rate of 20% would indicate a much lower effectiveness of atropine sulfate in treating hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. This rate would not support the widespread use of atropine in this condition. Option B (40%) is also incorrect as a success rate of 40% would suggest a moderate effectiveness of atropine, which is lower than the actual success rate observed in clinical practice. Option D (80%) is incorrect because while atropine is effective in many cases, an 80% success rate would overestimate its efficacy in treating hypertrophic pyloric stenosis without surgical intervention. Educationally, understanding the success rate of atropine sulfate in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. It highlights the importance of early diagnosis and timely surgical intervention in cases where atropine treatment may not be sufficient. This knowledge can help in making informed clinical decisions and providing optimal care for children with GI disorders.