ATI RN
Free Pediatric CCRN Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 9-year-old boy develops acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) one year after completion of therapy for soft tissue sarcoma at his right thigh. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is MOST likely the cause of secondary acute myelogenous leukemia AML in this boy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Etoposide is known to be associated with secondary AML due to its potential to induce chromosomal abnormalities.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with AIDS about complications of the disease. Which of the following is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) is the most common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS. PCP is caused by a fungus called Pneumocystis jirovecii (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii). Patients with AIDS have compromised immune systems, making them susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP. This infection can be life-threatening if not treated promptly with appropriate antibiotics. Symptoms of PCP include fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Early recognition and treatment of PCP are crucial in patients with AIDS to prevent severe complications.
Question 3 of 5
Alice is rushed to the emergency department during an acute, severe prolonged asthma attack and is unresponsive to usual treatment. The condition is referred to as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Status asthmaticus is a severe and persistent asthma attack that does not respond to standard treatments like inhalers or nebulizers. It is a life-threatening condition that can lead to respiratory failure if not treated promptly. Patients with status asthmaticus may require IV medications, oxygen therapy, and possibly mechanical ventilation to support their breathing. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications and potential death.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS) is characterized by extremely elevated blood glucose levels without significant ketosis. Unlike diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), patients with HHNS usually do not have high levels of ketone bodies in their blood or urine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate below-normal serum potassium levels in a client with HHNS, as hyperglycemia can lead to profound potassium losses through osmotic diuresis. Monitoring and treating electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, are crucial in managing HHNS. It is important to correct these imbalances promptly to prevent further complications.
Question 5 of 5
Low birth weight or premature infants are screened for anemia at birth and again at the age of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Anemia screening for low birth weight or premature infants is recommended at 6 months.