A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

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Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.

Question 2 of 9

The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls into the category of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: sanitization. Sanitization is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms on surfaces to a safe level. In restaurants, cleaning glassware and tableware aims to eliminate harmful bacteria to prevent foodborne illnesses. Degermation (A) focuses on removing germs from a specific area, sterilization (B) eliminates all microorganisms, and disinfection (C) reduces the number of pathogens but may not completely eliminate them, making them less effective choices for this context.

Question 3 of 9

How the prepared immunofluorescence slide should be examined?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunofluorescence slides are examined under a fluorescence microscope with a x100 oil immersion objective. This is because immunofluorescence relies on the detection of fluorescently labeled antibodies, which emit light when excited by a specific wavelength. Using a fluorescence microscope allows for visualization of these labeled antibodies at high magnification and resolution, enabling precise examination of cellular structures and protein localization. Choice B is incorrect as light microscopes are not suitable for visualizing fluorescence. Choice C is incorrect as electron microscopes use electrons, not light, for imaging, which is not compatible with immunofluorescence. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific method for examining immunofluorescence slides.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following microorganisms can be cultured only in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium leprae. This microorganism can only be cultured in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo due to its specific growth requirements. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (choice A) can be cultured in various culture media in the laboratory. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice C) can be cultured on selective media like Thayer-Martin agar. Mycoplasma (choice D) can be cultured in cell cultures or specialized media. Therefore, the unique growth pattern of Mycobacterium leprae makes it the correct answer.

Question 5 of 9

Mycoplasma species lack:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall. Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, making them unique among bacteria. This is because they have a flexible cell membrane that provides structural support instead of a rigid cell wall. The absence of a cell wall allows them to be pleomorphic and gives them resistance to certain antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis. Plasma membrane (B), DNA (C), and ribosomes (D) are present in Mycoplasma species, so they are not the correct answer.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Question 7 of 9

The cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria is composed of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria is primarily composed of phospholipids, glycerol, and glycolipids. Phospholipids form the basic structure of the membrane, with glycerol serving as the backbone and glycolipids present on the outer surface. Lipopolysaccharides (choice B) are primarily found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Choice C is incorrect because peptidoglycan is a component of the bacterial cell wall, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Choice D is incorrect as the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria is indeed composed of phospholipids, glycerol, and glycolipids.

Question 8 of 9

For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.

Question 9 of 9

The spores of bacteria can be stained by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Method of Moller. This method uses malachite green to stain bacterial spores due to their resistance to decolorization. The other choices, A, B, and D, are incorrect because Romanovski-Gymsa is used for staining blood smears, Ziehl-Nielsen is used for acid-fast bacteria, and Neisser is used for staining Neisseria species, not bacterial spores.

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