A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Polyclonal antibodies are produced by different B cells, each recognizing a different epitope on an antigen. Therefore, they can respond to multiple antigens. This diversity in recognition allows polyclonal antibodies to bind to various targets, making option A true. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the nature of polyclonal antibodies' ability to recognize multiple antigens.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transformation. Frederick Griffith discovered bacterial transformation, where genetic material can be transferred between bacteria. He observed this phenomenon while studying pneumonia-causing bacteria in 1928. Transformation is the process by which bacteria take up external DNA and incorporate it into their own genome. This discovery was crucial in understanding how genetic information can be transferred between organisms. Rationale for other choices: A: Translation - This term refers to the process of protein synthesis from mRNA, not relevant to Griffith's discovery. C: Transcription - This term refers to the process of synthesizing RNA from DNA, not related to Griffith's discovery. D: Conjugation - This term refers to the direct transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through cell-to-cell contact, which is different from the phenomenon Griffith observed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Method of Moller. This method uses malachite green to stain bacterial spores due to their resistance to decolorization. The other choices, A, B, and D, are incorrect because Romanovski-Gymsa is used for staining blood smears, Ziehl-Nielsen is used for acid-fast bacteria, and Neisser is used for staining Neisseria species, not bacterial spores.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria is primarily composed of phospholipids, glycerol, and glycolipids. Phospholipids form the basic structure of the membrane, with glycerol serving as the backbone and glycolipids present on the outer surface. Lipopolysaccharides (choice B) are primarily found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Choice C is incorrect because peptidoglycan is a component of the bacterial cell wall, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Choice D is incorrect as the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria is indeed composed of phospholipids, glycerol, and glycolipids.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Capsule. Capsules are a protective layer outside the bacterial cell wall that helps bacteria evade phagocytosis by immune cells. The capsule inhibits phagocytic cells from engulfing the bacteria, making it difficult for them to be recognized and destroyed. A: Flagella - Flagella are not involved in protecting bacteria from phagocytosis. They are responsible for bacterial movement. C: Endospore - Endospores are dormant, resistant structures formed by some bacteria in response to harsh conditions. They do not directly protect against phagocytosis. D: Pili - Pili are hair-like structures used for adhesion and conjugation, not for protection against phagocytosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits all the given characteristics: Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains, catalase-negative, and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin and soft tissue infections. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and typically forms clusters, not chains. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. Micrococcus luteus (D) is catalase-positive and not typically associated with wound infections.