A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?- Nurselytic

Question 1 of 5

A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?

A. Adjuvant chemotherapy B. Adjuvant chemotherapy with radiation C. Adjuvant radiation only D. Hormonal therapy only

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: No further treatment is necessary given the patient's good prognosis and lack of lymph node involvement or metastasis.

Question 2 of 5

Key neurotransmitter-based therapeutic strategies for PD include all the following except:

A. Increase glutamatergic stimulation B. Decrease cholinergic stimulation C. Increase dopaminergic stimulation D. Decrease glutamatergic stimulation

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: PD treatment aims to increase dopaminergic activity and reduce cholinergic activity, not increase glutamatergic stimulation.

Question 3 of 5

What is a patient's chief complaint?

A. A history of illness or symptoms B. The most urgent medical issue C. The first medical issue treated D. The patient's main reason for seeking medical care

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The chief complaint is the main reason the patient seeks care, focusing on their immediate concern.

Question 4 of 5

A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?

A. Adjuvant chemotherapy B. Adjuvant chemotherapy with radiation C. Adjuvant radiation only D. Hormonal therapy only

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: No further treatment is necessary given the patient's good prognosis and lack of lymph node involvement or metastasis.

Question 5 of 5

What is the primary characteristic of Tinea versicolor as it relates to skin conditions?

A. It presents as raised, red patches with a silvery scale. B. It appears as dark tan patches with a reddish cast and fine scales. C. It manifests as dry, itchy, and inflamed skin. D. It is characterized by a single, large, scaly patch.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Tinea versicolor presents with tan patches, often with a fine scale.

Nurselytic

ATI RN

ATI RN

physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Question 2 of 5

Question 3 of 5

Question 4 of 5

Question 5 of 5

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!