A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?

A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?

Mr. Quince is a 68-year-old patient who describes several months of urinary frequency and a sensation of incomplete emptying with no associated dysuria, hematuria, or fever. Physical examination reveals a slightly enlarged but nontender prostate, a postvoid residual urine volume of 20 mL, and a urinalysis with 15 white blood cells (WBCs) and 5 red blood cells (RBCs). Urine culture reveals 30,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli. You see a report from last year that shows urinalysis with 10 WBCs and 4 RBCs that was obtained as part of a routine evaluation. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of Mr. Quince’s symptoms?

Healthcare providers should recommend that older adults engage in which one of the following?

An 84-year-old woman complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. She is at high risk for delirium. Which of the following interventions may prevent the onset of delirium?

Which of the following is not a risk factor for late-life depression?